ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) for GERD. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Omeprazole, a PPI, reduces acid by inhibiting proton pumps, most effective before meals when acid production peaks, optimizing GERD relief. With antacids reduces efficacy'PPIs need acidic pH. Crushing destroys enteric coating. Bedtime-only misses daytime acid. Pre-meal dosing aligns with omeprazole's mechanism, critical in GERD where timing enhances healing, making A the key instruction.
Question 2 of 5
Following ingestion, a drug crosses a membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This is an example of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
The following are schedule II drugs, except :
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and dependency but also have accepted medical uses. A, C, D, and E are all classified as schedule II drugs. However, heroin is not a schedule II drug; it is classified as a schedule I drug due to its extremely high potential for abuse and lack of accepted medical use in the United States.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been changed from a first generation H1 receptor antagonist to a second generation H1 receptor antagonist. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands the benefit of this change when which statement is made?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Second-generation H1 antagonists (e.g., loratadine) are less lipophilic, reducing blood-brain barrier crossing, thus causing less sedation than first-generation ones (e.g., diphenhydramine). 'This drug will not make me as sleepy' shows the patient grasps this benefit, improving daily function. Alcohol still risks sedation. Dry mouth and urinary issues are anticholinergic effects less reduced in second-generation drugs.
Choice D confirms understanding of the primary advantage.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. The patient is in need of rapid diuresis. Which class of diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min indicates impaired kidney function or renal insufficiency. Loop diuretics are the preferred choice for patients with reduced kidney function because they act on the loop of Henle in the nephron, which is independent of creatinine clearance. They are effective for rapid diuresis even in patients with significantly reduced renal function. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are commonly used in patients with acute or chronic kidney disease to promote diuresis and manage fluid overload. Thiazides are not as effective in patients with low glomerular filtration rates, and osmotic diuretics may not be appropriate for rapid diuresis in this scenario. Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used for rapid diuresis but rather for maintaining potassium balance in cases where patients are at risk for hypokalemia.