ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity.
Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol.
Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.
Question 2 of 5
A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.
Question 3 of 5
A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.
Question 4 of 5
In which patient could the drug Senna potentially be indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Senna is a stimulant laxative commonly used to treat constipation by stimulating bowel movements. It is typically indicated for patients who have not passed stool in several days, thereby helping to relieve constipation. Patients with eating disorders may require different treatments related to their condition. Patients with anal fissures or a history of hemorrhoids may need treatments targeted at those specific issues, which may not involve Senna.
Question 5 of 5
A client with HIV-1 infection is prescribed zidovudine as part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Corrected
Rationale: Zidovudine is associated with the development of aplastic anemia, a serious adverse effect characterized by bone marrow suppression. Regular monitoring is essential to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Cardiac dysrhythmia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure are not commonly associated with zidovudine use, making them incorrect choices for adverse effects of this medication.