ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient suffering from generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has a history of drug dependence that includes the illicit use of secobarbital ('reds') and a variety of other drugs. Psychotherapy is indicated, but the physician also prescribes a drug that can be helpful in GAD and that has the advantage of no abuse liability. The drug prescribed was most likely to have been
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone, a 5HT1A partial agonist, treats GAD by modulating serotonin without sedative or euphoric effects, making it ideal for patients with substance abuse histories like secobarbital (a barbiturate). It lacks abuse potential, unlike benzodiazepines, and doesn't cause dependence, aligning with the patient's needs. Bupropion, an NE/DA reuptake inhibitor, targets depression and smoking cessation, not GAD, and has stimulant-like risks. Baclofen, a GABA_B agonist, manages spasticity, not anxiety, and has some abuse potential. Buprenorphine, an opioid partial agonist, treats addiction but not GAD and carries dependence risk. Phenobarbital, a barbiturate, mirrors the patient's abuse history and is contraindicated. Buspirone's efficacy in GAD, non-addictive nature, and safety in this context make it the optimal choice.
Question 2 of 5
A 43-year-old woman with a history of hypertension drinks one to two cups of coffee per day. She has been doing this for 3 months. As a result of her continued behavior, which of the following effects of coffee is most likely for her?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Daily coffee (caffeine) for 3 months likely leads to tolerance . Regular use reduces adenosine blockade's stimulant effect. Fatigue decrease and alertness wane with tolerance. Tremors and withdrawal (E) need higher doses or cessation.
Tolerance fits her chronic intake.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is started on a diuretic for antihypertensive therapy. The nurse expects that a drug in which class is likely to be used initially?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are commonly used as first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness, safety profile, and affordability. They work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to increased elimination of sodium and water, ultimately reducing blood volume and blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics are generally well-tolerated and have been shown to be effective in lowering blood pressure in patients with hypertension. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are more potent diuretics typically reserved for use in conditions where aggressive diuresis is needed, such as heart failure or renal disease. Osmotic diuretics, like mannitol, are primarily used for reducing intracranial pressure or preventing acute kidney injury. Potassium-sparing diuretics are often used in combination with other diuretics to prevent hypokalemia but are not typically used as
Question 4 of 5
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, typically requires 2 to 6 weeks to achieve full therapeutic effect, as it gradually increases neurotransmitter levels (e.g., serotonin, norepinephrine) in the brain to alleviate depression. After only 2 weeks, the patient's continued symptoms are expected, not indicative of failure, making choice A the best response: it educates the patient on the timeline, fostering adherence.
Choice B dismisses the patient's feelings with subjective reassurance, undermining trust.
Choice C prematurely suggests switching drugs without evidence, risking unnecessary changes.
Choice D exaggerates the timeline to months, which is inaccurate and discouraging. The nurse's role is to provide accurate information and support, reinforcing that delayed onset is normal for this class of medication, thus making choice A the most therapeutic and evidence-based response.
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant woman who is having labor pains is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following medications should be ready in case a respiratory depression occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is the antidote for opioid-induced respiratory depression and should be readily available when administering opioid analgesics during labor. It works by reversing the effects of opioids on the respiratory system, restoring normal breathing. Oxycodone, meperidine, and morphine are opioids and would exacerbate respiratory depression.
Therefore, naloxone is the correct medication to have on hand.