ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1 - Nurselytic

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ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1 Questions

Question 1 of 5

What property is found in clients with metastatic cancer?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Metastatic cancer is characterized by cells that invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells.
Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metastatic cancer is associated with aggressive behavior where cells invade and spread to other parts of the body, rather than being well encapsulated, growing slowly, or being genetically stable.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucagon. Glucagon helps raise blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, thus aiding in maintaining homeostasis. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), choice A, functions in regulating water balance in the body, not blood sugar levels. Insulin, choice B, lowers blood sugar levels by facilitating glucose uptake by cells. Thyroxine, choice D, is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that regulates metabolism and has no direct effect on blood sugar levels.

Question 3 of 5

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.

Question 4 of 5

A 60-year-old male client with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his family physician has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed with a chronic pain disorder. Which teaching points about chronic pain would his physician most likely emphasize to the client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chronic pain is often complex and challenging to treat, necessitating a multimodal approach that may include medication, physical therapy, and behavioral therapy.
Choice B is incorrect because chronic pain does not always indicate that an underlying injury has not healed properly; it can persist even after the initial injury has healed.
Choice C is incorrect as chronic pain management usually involves a combination of treatments rather than relying solely on a single long-term medication.
Choice D is incorrect because chronic pain is not necessarily less severe than acute pain; it can vary in intensity and duration depending on the individual and underlying condition.

Question 5 of 5

A patient has been using Viagra on an intermittent basis for several years. However, he has cited delays in the onset and peak of action as the occasional source of frustration. What PDE5 inhibitor may be of particular benefit to this patient's needs?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Avanafil (Stendra). Avanafil has a rapid onset of action compared to other PDE5 inhibitors, making it suitable for patients experiencing delays in onset and peak of action with other medications like Viagra. Tadalafil (Cialis), Vardenafil (Levitra), and Alprostadil (Caverject) do not offer the same rapid onset of action as Avanafil, making them less suitable for addressing the specific needs of this patient.

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