NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment -Nurselytic

Questions 28

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NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 56-year-old homosexual man presents with itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus of 1 week's duration. Rectal examination reveals generalized tenderness without frank prostate abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Given the patient's presentation of itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus, along with rectal examination findings of generalized tenderness without prostate abnormalities, proctitis is the most likely diagnosis. Proctitis is inflammation of the rectal lining and is commonly associated with symptoms such as rectal pain, itching, tenesmus (feeling of incomplete defecation), and sometimes rectal bleeding. It can have various causes, including sexually transmitted infections (such as gonorrhea, chlamydia), inflammatory bowel disease, radiation therapy, or trauma.

Question 2 of 5

His head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. There are some crackles in the bases of each lung. During his cardiac examination there is an extra heart sound. Visualization of his penis shows an uncircumcised prepuce but no lesions or masses. Palpation of his scrotum shows generalized swelling, with no discrete masses. A gloved finger is placed through each inguinal ring, and with bearing down there are no bulges. The prostate is smooth and nontender. What abnormality of the scrotum is most likely the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Scrotal edema refers to swelling of the scrotum, which can be caused by various reasons such as infection, inflammation, trauma, or fluid collection. In this case, the examination findings of generalized swelling of the scrotum with no discrete masses or bulges on palpation suggest scrotal edema as the most likely diagnosis. The absence of bulges when a finger is placed through the inguinal rings with bearing down rules out a scrotal hernia. Hydrocele typically presents as a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicle, but there are no specific findings mentioned in the scenario to suggest a hydrocele. Varicocele involves dilated veins in the scrotum and may present as a soft lump that feels like a "bag of worms," which is not described in the examination findings provided.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Scotomas refer to areas of partial alteration in the field of vision. These blind spots can be caused by various eye conditions such as glaucoma, retinal detachment, or optic nerve damage. Symptoms involving the eye like scotomas are important to recognize and address promptly to prevent potential vision loss or other complications. Tinnitus (choice
B) refers to ringing in the ears, dysphagia (choice
C) refers to difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea (choice
D) refers to a runny nose, none of which are symptoms involving the eye.

Question 4 of 5

A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CA
D) is a significant risk factor for peripheral vascular disease (PV
D). CAD is a condition where plaque builds up in the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. This process is called atherosclerosis. Similarly, in PVD, atherosclerosis occurs in the peripheral arteries, affecting blood flow to the extremities, most commonly the legs. Individuals with CAD often have systemic atherosclerosis, which puts them at higher risk for developing PVD.
Therefore, it is important for the 72-year-old teacher with CAD to be aware of this risk factor for PVD and consider appropriate screening and preventive measures.

Question 5 of 5

Diplopia, which is present with one eye covered, can be caused by which of the following problems?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Diplopia occurring when one eye is covered is a condition known as monocular diplopia. This symptom is typically not caused by problems within the eye itself, such as irregularities in the cornea or lens. Instead, monocular diplopia with one eye covered is more likely to be an indication of a neurological issue, often involving the brainstem. Lesions or damage in the brainstem can disrupt the normal coordination of eye movements, leading to the perception of double vision when one eye is closed. Weakness of CN III (oculomotor nerve) or CN IV (trochlear nerve) may cause diplopia when both eyes are open, but it would not typically manifest as monocular diplopia.

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