ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following are examples of prodrugs:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 9
It is defined as the fraction of drug absorbed by the body
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bioavailability is defined as the fraction of drug that reaches systemic circulation in an unchanged form after administration. It is a crucial pharmacokinetic parameter that reflects the amount and rate of drug absorption. Bioavailability can be influenced by various factors such as the route of administration, drug formulation, and first-pass metabolism. Monitoring bioavailability is important in determining the efficacy and dosage requirements of a drug.
Question 3 of 9
What is the action of Metformin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 9
What is the classification of the drug Lithium?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lithium is a mood stabilizer used primarily in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to reduce the intensity and frequency of manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder, as well as prevent the recurrence of both manic and depressive episodes. Lithium is not classified as an anti-diabetic, anti-ulcer agent, or diuretic.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is the most effective in the management of absence seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Absence seizures, brief lapses in consciousness, require specific antiepileptics. Carbamazepine, effective for focal seizures, can worsen absence seizures by enhancing sodium channel activity. Topiramate and clobazam have broader uses but limited efficacy here. Phenytoin suits tonic-clonic, not absence. Ethosuximide reduces T-type calcium currents in thalamic neurons, directly targeting absence seizure mechanisms, making it most effective. Its specificity ensures rapid control, critical for pediatric epilepsy management.
Question 6 of 9
A patient tells the nurse that he likes to eat large amounts of garlic to help lower his cholesterol levels naturally. The nurse reviews his medication history and notes that which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Garlic has been reported to have potential interactions with warfarin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Garlic contains compounds that can also act as anticoagulants, and the combination with warfarin may increase the risk of bleeding. It can lead to potentiation of the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding complications. Therefore, patients taking warfarin should be cautious about consuming large amounts of garlic or garlic supplements. This potential interaction highlights the importance of discussing all dietary supplements with healthcare providers to prevent adverse events.
Question 7 of 9
A woman with myoclonic seizures is well controlled with lamotrigine. She becomes pregnant and begins to have breakthrough seizures. What is most likely happening?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnancy increases lamotrigine clearance via enhanced glucuronidation (UGT enzyme induction), lowering plasma concentrations and risking breakthrough seizures, as seen here. Worsening epilepsy is possible but less likely without prior progression. Increased concentrations would improve control, not worsen it. Loss of efficacy is unlikely if previously effective; pharmacokinetic changes are more plausible. Monitoring and dose adjustment during pregnancy, per epilepsy guidelines, address this common issue, making decreased concentrations the most likely cause.
Question 8 of 9
A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unconscious. He undergoes a CT of the chest, which reveals a pulmonary embolism. He is considered for immediate therapy with heparin. Because the man is unconscious, a history cannot be obtained from him. Which of the following would represent a contraindication to heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. The patient is in need of rapid diuresis. Which class of diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min indicates impaired kidney function or renal insufficiency. Loop diuretics are the preferred choice for patients with reduced kidney function because they act on the loop of Henle in the nephron, which is independent of creatinine clearance. They are effective for rapid diuresis even in patients with significantly reduced renal function. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are commonly used in patients with acute or chronic kidney disease to promote diuresis and manage fluid overload. Thiazides are not as effective in patients with low glomerular filtration rates, and osmotic diuretics may not be appropriate for rapid diuresis in this scenario. Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used for rapid diuresis but rather for maintaining potassium balance in cases where patients are at risk for hypokalemia.