ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 43-year-old Caucasian woman complains that her irises have been darkening. She says that she has been taking a drug for years to treat her glaucoma. Which of the following drugs is most likely causing the increased pigmentation of her irises?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Iris darkening in glaucoma treatment points to Latanoprost , a prostaglandin analog. It increases melanin in iridial melanocytes, a known side effect. Acetazolamide , a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, Epinephrine , Pilocarpine , and Timolol (E) don't cause this. Latanoprost's cosmetic effect is well-documented, fitting her long-term use.
Question 2 of 5
A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unconscious. He undergoes a CT of the chest, which reveals a pulmonary embolism. He is considered for immediate therapy with heparin. Because the man is unconscious, a history cannot be obtained from him. Which of the following would represent a contraindication to heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A woman with myoclonic seizures is well controlled with lamotrigine. She becomes pregnant and begins to have breakthrough seizures. What is most likely happening?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pregnancy increases lamotrigine clearance via enhanced glucuronidation (UGT enzyme induction), lowering plasma concentrations and risking breakthrough seizures, as seen here. Worsening epilepsy is possible but less likely without prior progression. Increased concentrations would improve control, not worsen it. Loss of efficacy is unlikely if previously effective; pharmacokinetic changes are more plausible. Monitoring and dose adjustment during pregnancy, per epilepsy guidelines, address this common issue, making decreased concentrations the most likely cause.
Question 4 of 5
A patient has been changed from a first generation H1 receptor antagonist to a second generation H1 receptor antagonist. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands the benefit of this change when which statement is made?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Second-generation H1 antagonists (e.g., loratadine) are less lipophilic, reducing blood-brain barrier crossing, thus causing less sedation than first-generation ones (e.g., diphenhydramine). 'This drug will not make me as sleepy' shows the patient grasps this benefit, improving daily function. Alcohol still risks sedation. Dry mouth and urinary issues are anticholinergic effects less reduced in second-generation drugs. Choice D confirms understanding of the primary advantage.
Question 5 of 5
Oral decongestants differ from intranasal decongestants in that oral decongestants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.