ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected
Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.
Question 2 of 5
A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following foods should the provider instruct the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients taking Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as broccoli, as they can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Vitamin K can counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. Broccoli is rich in vitamin K, so its consumption should be consistent to avoid fluctuations in the medication's effectiveness. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not known to significantly interact with Warfarin and do not pose a risk of affecting its anticoagulant properties.
Question 3 of 5
When providing teaching to a client with a prescription for Phenytoin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brush and floss your teeth regularly.' Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, a side effect that affects the gums. It is crucial for the client to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent oral health complications.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While the timing of medication administration and dietary considerations are important, they are not directly related to preventing the specific side effect of gingival hyperplasia caused by Phenytoin.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.
Question 5 of 5
While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected
Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke.
Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation.
Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.