ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (
A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (
C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (
D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.
Question 2 of 5
Congenital retraction of the prepuce, so that the glans is permanently exposed, is known as
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Congenital retraction of the prepuce, leading to permanent glans exposure, describes paraphimosis. This condition occurs when the foreskin is pulled back and cannot return to its normal position, causing pain and swelling. Phimosis (
A) is the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans. Hypospadias (
C) is a urethral opening on the underside of the penis. Hermaphroditism (
D) is a rare condition of having both male and female reproductive organs. Paraphimosis (
B) is the specific term for the given scenario.
Question 3 of 5
Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are among the features of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Very severe anaemia. Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are classic symptoms of very severe anaemia due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Anemia leads to tissue hypoxia, causing shortness of breath and fluid retention. Folate deficiency (
A) typically presents with megaloblastic anemia, not generalized edema. Mild iron deficiency (
C) may lead to fatigue and weakness but not the severe symptoms described. Severe anemia (
D) is too broad; very severe anemia specifically refers to the severity of the condition.
Question 4 of 5
Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (
B) or systemic corticosteroids (
D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (
C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.
Question 5 of 5
In myelodysplastic syndromes, the primary indications for splenectomy include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In myelodysplastic syndromes, splenectomy is indicated for sustained leukocyte elevation above 30,000 cells/µL to manage symptomatic splenomegaly and cytopenias. This is because an enlarged spleen can sequester and destroy blood cells, leading to low blood cell counts.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as splenectomy is not typically indicated for major hemolysis unresponsive to medical management, severe symptoms of massive splenomegaly, or portal hypertension in the context of myelodysplastic syndromes.