Correct Answer: B

Rationale:
Step 1: Family history of colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer.

Step 2: By discussing with his parents, Mr. Costigan can determine if there is a family history of colon cancer.

Step 3: Knowing this information can help assess his own risk and guide appropriate screening and preventive measures.

Step 4: The primary danger for Mr. Costigan lies in potential genetic predisposition rather than the presence of inflammatory polyps.

Step 5:
Therefore, discussing with family members about any history of colon cancer is crucial for his overall risk assessment and management.

Summary:
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Choice A is incorrect as the frequency of colonoscopy should be individualized based on the patient's risk factors.
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Choice C is incorrect as all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, especially inflammatory polyps.
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Choice D is incorrect as consulting an oncologist at this stage is premature without first assessing family history.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
Step 1: In normal labor, the cervix undergoes effacement and dilation.

Step 2: A short and thin cervical canal indicates progression towards labor.

Step 3: Long and thick cervical canal suggests a delay in labor progress.

Step 4:
Choice C, short and thin cervical canal, is indicative of abnormal labor.
Summary: A, B, and D do not reflect changes in the cervix seen in labor, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (
B) or systemic corticosteroids (
D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (
C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients.

Summary for other choices:
B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice.
C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective.
D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the context of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, a partial response means converting an unresectable tumor to a resectable one. This is crucial as it allows for successful surgical removal of the tumor.

Choices A, B, and C do not accurately define partial response in the context of cancer therapy. A, stating 50% of patients demonstrating remission, is not specific to the change in resectability. B, mentioning 50% survival at 5 years, is more related to overall survival rather than the response to treatment. C, stating a reduction in tumor mass by >50%, does not necessarily imply a change in resectability status.
Therefore, option D is the most appropriate definition of partial response in the given scenario.