ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam - Nurselytic

Questions 41

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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength.
Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (
Choice
A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (
Choice
B) and CT scan of the chest (
Choice
D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

Question 3 of 5

A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Corrected
Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.

Question 4 of 5

Which manifestation of stress reflects the non-specific fight or flight response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Increased cardiopulmonary rates.' The fight or flight response, activated by stress, is a non-specific physiological reaction that prepares the body to deal with perceived threats. In this response, the heart rate and breathing rate increase to supply more oxygen to muscles and vital organs, enabling a rapid response in dangerous situations.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased pupillary light response, increased GI motility, and decreased short-term memory are not typical manifestations of the fight or flight response.

Question 5 of 5

When the body produces antibodies against its own tissue, the condition is called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Autoimmunity is the correct term for a condition where the body's immune system mistakenly targets its own tissues. Alloimmunity (
Choice
A) refers to an immune response against foreign tissue. Opsonization (
Choice
B) is a process where pathogens are marked for destruction by immune cells. Hypersensitivity (
Choice
D) involves an exaggerated immune response against antigens.

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