ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (
Choice
B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (
Choice
C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (
Choice
D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
Question 2 of 5
What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively.
Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure.
Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate.
Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
Question 3 of 5
What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with GERD?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. Mint and spicy foods can aggravate GERD symptoms by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter and increasing stomach acid production, leading to acid reflux.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms as lying down can promote acid reflux. Consuming liquids with meals can also exacerbate GERD by increasing stomach distension and pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Eating three large meals per day can overload the stomach and trigger acid reflux episodes in patients with GERD.
Question 4 of 5
What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice
B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice
C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice
D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.
Question 5 of 5
What are the adverse effects of radiation after a mastectomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 heart sound, fatigue. Radiation after a mastectomy can lead to fatigue and symptoms of heart failure, such as the presence of an S3 heart sound.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pulselessness in the affected extremity would be more relevant to vascular complications, shortness of breath (SO
B) and jugular venous distention (JV
D) could indicate cardiac or respiratory issues unrelated to radiation, and localized pain, swelling, and erythema are more characteristic of a local inflammatory response rather than the systemic effects of radiation post-mastectomy.