ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What should be monitored in a patient with diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with diabetes insipidus, monitoring urine specific gravity for values below 1.005 is crucial. Low urine specific gravity indicates excessive water loss, a key characteristic of diabetes insipidus. Monitoring for increased thirst (choice
B) may be a symptom presented by the patient, but it does not directly reflect the condition's severity. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice
C) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. Monitoring blood pressure closely (choice
D) is not a primary concern in diabetes insipidus unless severe dehydration leads to hypotension.
Question 2 of 5
What is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority intervention for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome as it helps dilate blood vessels, reduce chest pain, and improve blood flow to the heart. This intervention is crucial in managing acute coronary syndrome and should be given promptly. Getting IV access may be necessary, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence to alleviate symptoms and prevent further heart damage. Auscultating heart sounds and administering aspirin are important aspects of the assessment and treatment plan, but they are not the priority interventions in the acute phase of suspected acute coronary syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently.
Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure.
Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys.
Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level. What should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level, they should monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin lowers blood sugar levels, so the patient may experience hypoglycemia if given insulin unnecessarily. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves observing for symptoms such as shakiness, sweating, dizziness, confusion, and palpitations.
Choices B and C are incorrect because administering insulin for a misread glucose level would lower blood sugar levels, resulting in hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia or hyperkalemia.
Choice D is not the immediate priority; the focus should be on patient safety and monitoring for potential adverse effects of the unnecessary insulin.
Question 5 of 5
What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads.
Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia.
Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia.
Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.