ATI RN
Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. On visualization of her anus, no inflammation, masses, or fissures are noted. When she is asked to bear down, you see a rosette of red mucosa prolapsing from the anus. On digital rectal examination there are no masses and no blood is found on the glove. What disorder of the anus or rectum is this likely to be?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The findings described in the scenario point towards rectal prolapse. Rectal prolapse, also known as procidentia or rectal procidentia, is the full-thickness protrusion of the rectal wall through the anus. The characteristic presentation often includes the protrusion of a rosette of red mucosa from the anus when the patient bears down. This is consistent with the visual assessment mentioned in the scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A young woman undergoes cranial nerve testing. On touching the soft palate, her uvula deviates to the left. Which of the following is likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When the uvula deviates to one side upon touching the soft palate, it indicates a dysfunction of the vagus nerve (CN X) on the side toward which the uvula deviates. In this case, the uvula deviates to the left, suggesting a lesion affecting the left CN X. This is because the palate and uvula are innervated by the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X), and damage to this nerve may result in an asymmetric elevation or deviation of the uvula upon stimulation.
Therefore, a CN X lesion on the left side is the most likely explanation for the observed deviation of the uvula in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. It began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. It hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. She has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. She has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. She denies any other recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. On examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. She is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. Her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. Her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells. What type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The policewoman's presentation of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin, associated with nausea, blood in urine, and tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle is highly suggestive of a kidney stone causing ureteral colic. Kidney stones are solid masses made of crystals that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe pain as they move through the urinary tract, leading to blockage and subsequent stretching of the ureter (the tube connecting the kidney to the bladder), resulting in pain that radiates from the flank down to the groin region. The presence of blood in the urine (hematuria) is a common finding with kidney stones due to irritation and damage to the ureteral lining as the stone passes. The negative urine pregnancy test rules out pregnancy-related causes of urinary symptoms. Musculoskeletal pain is less likely given the location and character of the pain
Question 4 of 5
It is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. It is located in the mid- epigastric area." Which of these categories does it belong to?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description provided, "It is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. It is located in the mid-epigastric area," indicates the current symptoms and location of the discomfort the patient is experiencing. This information is typically included in the Present Illness section of a medical history, which focuses on the patient's current health concerns, symptoms, and complaints. It helps the healthcare provider understand the nature of the problem and guide further evaluation and treatment. The Chief Complaint is usually a concise statement of the patient's main reason for seeking medical attention, the Personal and Social History includes information about the patient's lifestyle habits and social support, and the Review of Systems is a systematic inquiry about the patient's overall health.
Question 5 of 5
You are assessing a patient with diffuse joint pains and want to make sure that only the joints are the problem, and that the pain is not related to other diseases. Which of the following is a systemic cause of joint pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lupus is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues throughout the body, including the joints. Joint pain in lupus is usually accompanied by other systemic symptoms such as fatigue, fever, skin rashes, and organ involvement. It is important to consider lupus as a potential cause of joint pain in a patient with diffuse joint symptoms to ensure proper management and treatment. Gout, osteoarthritis, and spondylosis are more localized conditions that primarily affect the joints without the systemic involvement typically seen in lupus.