ATI RN
Physical Assessment Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A young woman undergoes cranial nerve testing. On touching the soft palate, her uvula deviates to the left. Which of the following is likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When the uvula deviates to one side upon touching the soft palate, it indicates a dysfunction of the vagus nerve (CN X) on the side toward which the uvula deviates. In this case, the uvula deviates to the left, suggesting a lesion affecting the left CN X. This is because the palate and uvula are innervated by the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X), and damage to this nerve may result in an asymmetric elevation or deviation of the uvula upon stimulation.
Therefore, a CN X lesion on the left side is the most likely explanation for the observed deviation of the uvula in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A patient complains of shortness of breath for the past few days. On examination, you note late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present a week ago. What is the most likely explanation for these?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presence of late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present previously is suggestive of pulmonary edema, a common finding in patients with heart failure. Heart failure can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing crackles on auscultation. These crackles are typically heard at the lung bases and can be more prominent during inspiration. Other clinical features of heart failure may include orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, lower extremity edema, and fatigue.
Therefore, in this case, the most likely explanation for the patient's shortness of breath with late inspiratory crackles is heart failure.
Question 3 of 5
A 22-year-old unemployed roofer presents to your clinic, complaining of pain in his testicle and penis. He states the pain began last night and has steadily become worse. He states it hurts when he urinates and he has not attempted intercourse since the pain began. He has tried Tylenol and ibuprofen without improvement. He denies any fever or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He has had four previous sexual partners and has had a new partner for the last month. She is on oral contraceptives so he has not used condoms. His parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young man lying on his side. He appears mildly ill. His temperature is 2 and his blood pressure, respirations, and pulse are normal. On visualization of the penis he is circumcised, with no lesions or discharge from the meatus. Visualization of the scrotal skin appears unremarkable. Palpation of the testes shows severe tenderness at the superior pole of the normal-sized left testicle. He also has tenderness when you palpate the structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is placed through each inguinal ring without bulges being noted with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis shows white blood cells and bacteria. What diagnosis of the male genitalia is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The history and physical examination findings in this case are most consistent with acute epididymitis. Acute epididymitis is characterized by inflammation and infection of the epididymis, which is a tubular structure located behind the testicle that stores and carries sperm. Common symptoms of acute epididymitis include pain and swelling in the scrotum, testicular pain, pain with urination, and sometimes penile discharge. The patient's symptoms of testicular and penile pain, as well as pain with urination, are classic for epididymitis. The severe tenderness at the superior pole of the left testicle and tenderness on palpation of structures superior to the testicle through the scrotal wall further support this diagnosis. In addition, the presence of white blood cells and bacteria on urine analysis is consistent with an infectious process like epididymitis.
Question 4 of 5
Mrs. Patton, a 48-year-old woman, comes to your office with a complaint of a breast mass. Without any other information, what is the risk of this mass being cancerous?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a woman over the age of 40 presents with a breast mass, the risk of the mass being cancerous is around 40%. This risk is higher in older women compared to younger women. It is important for Mrs. Patton to undergo further evaluation, which may include imaging tests, a biopsy, and consultation with a specialist to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. It is crucial to address breast masses promptly to ensure timely management and optimal outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
Francis is a middle-aged man who noted right-sided lower abdominal pain after straining with yard work. Which of the following would make a hernia more likely?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Inguinal hernias are common types of hernias that occur in the groin area. When a person strains, the hernia may become more noticeable as the abdominal contents push through a weak spot in the abdominal wall. The absence of symmetry of the inguinal areas with straining indicates that there is a hernia present, as the bulge or protrusion in the groin area becomes more prominent with straining. This makes a hernia more likely in this case.
Therefore, option D is the correct choice in this scenario. The other options do not directly point to the presence of a hernia.