openstax microbiology test bank -Nurselytic

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is the correct answer because it is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex and varicella-zoster viruses, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are used to treat influenza by inhibiting viral replication or easing symptoms. Acyclovir's mechanism of action targets different viruses, making it ineffective for treating influenza.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycoplasma hominis, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Ureaplasma urealyticum are all known to cause non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis. These organisms can infect the urogenital tract and lead to inflammation and symptoms in both males and females. Each of these bacteria has been identified as a common cause of these conditions through research and clinical studies.
Therefore, since all three organisms are capable of causing non-gonococcal urethritis and cervicitis, the correct answer is D. The other choices (A, B, and
C) are incorrect because each of them alone can cause these conditions, making option D the most comprehensive and accurate choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: PCR. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the most suitable method for detecting genitourinary chlamydiosis due to its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting the genetic material of Chlamydia trachomatis. PCR can detect even low levels of the pathogen, providing accurate results.
A: Cultural diagnostic is not as sensitive as PCR and may take longer to produce results.
B: ELISA detects antibodies, which may not be present in early stages of infection, leading to false-negative results.
C: CFT (Complement Fixation Test) is an older method with lower sensitivity compared to PCR for detecting chlamydiosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A:
Toxoplasma. The crescent-shaped protozoa with pointed ends and blue cytoplasm described in the question are characteristic of
Toxoplasma gondii, the causative agent of toxoplasmosis.
Toxoplasma staining with Romanovsky-Giemsa method typically shows these specific morphological features. Plasmodium causes malaria and does not exhibit the described morphology. Leishmania and Trypanosoma are both kinetoplastid parasites, but they do not typically present as crescent-shaped protozoa with blue cytoplasm.
Therefore, based on the specific characteristics described in the question, the correct answer is
Toxoplasma.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: EBV. Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by bacteria, not viruses like Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The main pathogens involved in osteomyelitis are typically Staphylococcus aureus, including Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRS
A), Haemophilus influenzae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. EBV is not a causative agent of osteomyelitis. It is crucial to differentiate between bacterial and viral etiologies in infectious diseases to guide appropriate treatment.