ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice
A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice
C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice
D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness.
Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary.
Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shoulder presentation is a contraindication for oxytocin because it can increase the risk of complications during labor, such as shoulder dystocia. Diabetes mellitus (
Choice
A) is not a contraindication for the use of oxytocin. Postterm with oligohydramnios (
Choice
C) and chorioamnionitis (
Choice
D) may actually necessitate the use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor for the well-being of the mother and baby.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported.
Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function.
Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues.
Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention.
Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection.
Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome.
Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.