ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached. Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulants but work in different ways. Heparin acts quickly to prevent blood clot formation while warfarin takes several days to reach its full effect.
Therefore, heparin is often used initially to provide immediate anticoagulation while waiting for the warfarin to reach therapeutic levels. This dual therapy is common in clinical practice to ensure continuous anticoagulation.
Question 2 of 5
Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal illness associated with liver failure and encephalopathy is associated with the administration of which over-the-counter (OTC) medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reye's syndrome is linked to the use of aspirin in children and adolescents, particularly during viral infections. It causes severe liver and brain damage. Acetaminophen, ibuprofen, and antihistamines are not associated with this condition. Avoiding aspirin in pediatric patients is critical to prevent this rare but life-threatening syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
What is the common side effect that is normal with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to increased vasodilation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most common side effect that is normal with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to increased vasodilation is a headache. Nitroglycerine causes vasodilation of blood vessels, including the blood vessels in the head and brain. This can lead to headaches as a result of the increased blood flow and changes in blood vessel diameter. Headaches caused by Nitroglycerine are usually mild and transient. It is important to monitor patients for this expected side effect and educate them about it to ensure compliance with the medication regimen.
Question 4 of 5
A patient requires a nonopioid medication. The nurse knows that which medication will cause the least gastrointestinal distress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, which means it primarily targets the COX-2 enzyme involved in inflammation and pain while sparing the COX-1 enzyme that protects the stomach lining. This selectivity reduces the risk of gastrointestinal distress, such as ulcers and bleeding, compared to non-selective NSAIDs like aspirin, ketorolac, and ibuprofen.
Therefore, celecoxib is the best choice for patients who require a nonopioid medication with minimal gastrointestinal side effects. Nurses should consider this when selecting pain management options for patients with a history of gastrointestinal issues.
Question 5 of 5
What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin belongs to the class of medications known as biguanides. Biguanides work by decreasing glucose production in the liver and also improving insulin sensitivity in the muscles, helping to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes. Additionally, metformin can also reduce glucose absorption in the intestines and increase glucose uptake in peripheral tissues. Its main pharmacological action is to improve glycemic control and reduce hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes.