ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the pharmacological class of Metformin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metformin belongs to the pharmacological class known as biguanides. Biguanides are a group of oral medications commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes by lowering blood sugar levels. Metformin works primarily by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver while also increasing the sensitivity of muscle cells to insulin. This class of drugs does not stimulate insulin release from the pancreas like sulfonylureas and meglitinides but rather works by targeting the liver and improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. The main pharmacological effect of metformin is to reduce hepatic glucose output, which helps to control blood glucose levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes.
Question 2 of 9
What is the action of Metformin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 9
The following are examples of prodrugs:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 9
A patient reports having adverse effects with nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse can suggest performing which action to minimize these undesirable effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking an aspirin tablet 30 minutes before taking nicotinic acid (niacin) can help minimize flushing and other adverse effects associated with nicotinic acid therapy. Aspirin can help to reduce the vasodilation effects caused by nicotinic acid, thereby decreasing the flushing reaction experienced by the patient. This strategy is commonly recommended to help patients tolerate nicotinic acid therapy better and improve medication adherence.
Question 5 of 9
Following ingestion, a drug crosses a membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. This is an example of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 6 of 9
A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unconscious. He undergoes a CT of the chest, which reveals a pulmonary embolism. He is considered for immediate therapy with heparin. Because the man is unconscious, a history cannot be obtained from him. Which of the following would represent a contraindication to heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. The patient is in need of rapid diuresis. Which class of diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min indicates impaired kidney function or renal insufficiency. Loop diuretics are the preferred choice for patients with reduced kidney function because they act on the loop of Henle in the nephron, which is independent of creatinine clearance. They are effective for rapid diuresis even in patients with significantly reduced renal function. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are commonly used in patients with acute or chronic kidney disease to promote diuresis and manage fluid overload. Thiazides are not as effective in patients with low glomerular filtration rates, and osmotic diuretics may not be appropriate for rapid diuresis in this scenario. Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used for rapid diuresis but rather for maintaining potassium balance in cases where patients are at risk for hypokalemia.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is the most effective in the management of absence seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Absence seizures, brief lapses in consciousness, require specific antiepileptics. Carbamazepine, effective for focal seizures, can worsen absence seizures by enhancing sodium channel activity. Topiramate and clobazam have broader uses but limited efficacy here. Phenytoin suits tonic-clonic, not absence. Ethosuximide reduces T-type calcium currents in thalamic neurons, directly targeting absence seizure mechanisms, making it most effective. Its specificity ensures rapid control, critical for pediatric epilepsy management.
Question 9 of 9
A client has been using sildenafil (Viagra) for several months. Which client reports would the nurse interpret as an adverse effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra) commonly causes nasal congestion due to vasodilation affecting nasal blood vessels, a frequent adverse effect tied to its mechanism. Earache isn't a recognized side effect-sildenafil targets vascular smooth muscle, not auditory systems. Blurry vision occurs from PDE-6 inhibition in the retina, another known issue. Priapism, a sustained erection, is a rare but serious risk requiring urgent care. Nasal congestion stands out as a typical, manageable effect, reflecting sildenafil's systemic vasodilatory impact, distinct from less common visual or emergent issues, and aligns with patient reports needing monitoring.