ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The husband of a client diagnosed with complex somatic symptom disorder asks the nurse, 'What causes this condition?' Which response by the nurse would be most accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (
C): The nurse should explain that the symptoms of complex somatic symptom disorder can be manifestations of emotions that the client is unable to express verbally. This response addresses the psychological aspect of the disorder, which is a key component of somatic symptom disorders.
Summary of incorrect choices:
A: Genetic link is not the primary cause of complex somatic symptom disorder.
B: Chronic stress leading to hypoarousal is not the typical explanation for this disorder.
D: Internal preoccupation with events may be a feature of the disorder but does not explain the underlying cause related to emotional expression.
Question 2 of 5
What type of alteration is more specific to delirium than to dementia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: alteration in attention. Delirium is characterized by acute onset and fluctuating course, leading to prominent deficits in attention. In contrast, dementia typically presents with gradual memory decline over months or years.
Choices A and B are more indicative of dementia, as alterations developing over months and memory deficits are common in dementia.
Choice D, no alteration in baseline, is not specific to either delirium or dementia, as both conditions can have alterations in baseline functioning.
Question 3 of 5
A group of nursing students is reviewing information about the changing family structure and its effect on mental health and illness. The students demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in stepfamilies, caring for the children can be a primary stressor to the marital partners due to the complexities of blending different family dynamics. This can lead to increased tension and challenges in the relationship, impacting mental health.
Explanation:
1.
Stepfamilies involve integrating individuals from previous relationships, leading to potential conflicts and adjustments.
2. Caring for children from previous relationships can create additional stress and strain on the marital partners.
3. Balancing different parenting styles and expectations can lead to disagreements and increased stress levels.
4. These stressors can contribute to mental health issues such as anxiety, depression, and relationship conflicts within stepfamilies.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect as it generalizes about middle-aged childless adults without considering individual circumstances.
Choice C is incorrect as separation due to relocation may not always result in additional support from extended family.
Choice D is incorrect as mental health outcomes in same-sex families can vary and may not always demonstrate lower rates of depression
Question 4 of 5
What is the current accepted professional view of the effect of culture on the development of a personality disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Step 1: The correct answer is A because there isn't enough empirical evidence to confirm the role of ethnicity and race in the prevalence of personality disorders.
Step 2: Culture and ethnic background can influence the development of personality disorders, but current research is inconclusive.
Step 3:
Choice B is incorrect because it makes a generalized statement without providing evidence or sources to support it.
Step 4:
Choice C is incorrect because culture and ethnic background can indeed play a role in the development of personality disorders.
Step 5:
Choice D is incorrect because while genetic factors may contribute to personality disorders, cultural factors also play a significant role.
Question 5 of 5
The parents of a child with ADHD bring the child for a follow-up visit. During the visit, they tell the nurse that the child receives his first dose of methylphenidate (Ritalin) at about 7:30 AM every morning before leaving for school. The teacher and school nurse have noticed a return in the child's overactivity and distractibility just before lunch. The child's second dose is scheduled for about 12 noon. Which of the following might the nurse suggest as a possible solution to control the child's symptoms a bit more effectively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Switching to a longer acting preparation. By switching to a longer-acting preparation of methylphenidate, the child will receive a sustained release of the medication throughout the day, which can help control symptoms more effectively. This would prevent the dip in medication effectiveness before lunch.
A: Giving the second dose at 1 PM or later may not be as effective in maintaining symptom control throughout the school day.
C: Splitting the early morning dose in half may not provide consistent symptom control throughout the day.
D: Switching to another class of medication is not necessary if the child is responding well to methylphenidate, and a longer-acting preparation of the same medication can be a more appropriate solution.