microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank -Nurselytic

Correct Answer: B

Rationale:
Step 1: The description of microorganisms resembling tennis racket indicates Corynebacterium diphtheriae, the causative agent of diphtheria.

Step 2: Diphtheria is a bacterial infection that can cause severe respiratory and systemic symptoms.

Step 3: Botulism is caused by Clostridium botulinum, not tennis racket-shaped microorganisms.

Step 4: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi, which does not resemble tennis rackets.

Step 5: Salmonellosis is caused by various Salmonella species, which also do not have the described tennis racket appearance.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neuraminidase inhibitors. Neuraminidase is an enzyme crucial for the release of new viral particles from infected cells during influenza infection. By inhibiting neuraminidase, the spread of the virus is limited. Protease inhibitors (choice
A) are used to treat HIV, not influenza. Beta-lactamase inhibitors (choice
B) are used in combination with beta-lactam antibiotics to increase their effectiveness against bacteria, not viruses. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors (choice
C) are used to treat HIV by blocking the enzyme responsible for replicating the virus's genetic material, but they are not effective against influenza.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C:
To perform serodiagnostics of tuberculosis.

Rationale: The negative reaction to the Mantoux test indicates absence of TB infection. Performing serodiagnostics will further confirm the absence of active infection. This is important to rule out TB before considering vaccination or isolation measures.
Summary:
A: BCG vaccination is not necessary as the boy shows a negative reaction to the Mantoux test.
B: Repeating the test in a month is unnecessary as the initial test already showed a negative reaction.
D: Isolating the boy is not warranted as there is no evidence of active TB infection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thin mobile bacillus with central spore. This is because the causative agent of botulism, Clostridium botulinum, is a gram-positive bacillus that typically appears as a thin rod-shaped bacterium with a central endospore. This characteristic morphology is essential in the identification of Clostridium botulinum.

A: Gram-positive bacillus with subterminal spore - This is incorrect as Clostridium botulinum typically has a central endospore, not a subterminal one.
B: Thick gram-positive non-spore-forming bacillus - This is incorrect as Clostridium botulinum forms endospores, although they are not thick.
C: Gram-positive bacillus with terminal spore - This is incorrect as the spore of Clostridium botulinum is typically central, not terminal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (
B), Ampicillin (
C), and Gentamicin (
D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria.
Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.