ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is giving instructions to a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse concludes that the client has a sufficient knowledge if the client states that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the serum phenytoin level is crucial when taking phenytoin (Dilantin) because phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range. Having regular blood tests to check the drug levels ensures that the medication is within the effective range and helps prevent toxicity or ineffectiveness. This also allows healthcare providers to adjust the dosage if needed, based on the serum level results. It is an essential part of managing phenytoin therapy and ensuring its effectiveness while minimizing the risk of adverse reactions.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with , should stop taking NSAIDS ATI PHARMACOLOGY LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 PROCTORED EXAM -STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS & ANS 100% CORRECTLY VERIFIED GRADED A+ ATI PHARMACOLOGY LATEST UPDATE 2022/2023 PROCTORED EXAM -STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS & ANS 100% CORRECTLY VERIFIED GRADED A+
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patients with peptic ulcers should stop taking NSAIDs. NSAIDs, which stands for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, can worsen peptic ulcers by increasing the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and ulcer formation. NSAIDs work by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis, which can lead to a decrease in the protective mucus production in the stomach lining, allowing gastric acid to damage the mucosa and exacerbate peptic ulcers.
Therefore, it is crucial for patients with peptic ulcers to avoid NSAIDs to prevent further damage to the gastrointestinal tract.
Question 3 of 5
Penicillin G has been prescribed for a patient. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse perform for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillin G is a beta-lactam antibiotic that can cause severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Having epinephrine on hand is crucial for managing such emergencies. Collecting a culture and sensitivity before the first dose ensures the infection is caused by a penicillin-susceptible organism. Mouth ulcers are not a common side effect of penicillin, but monitoring for superinfections like oral thrush is important. Limiting fluid intake to 1000 mL/day is incorrect, as adequate hydration helps maintain renal function and prevents crystalluria. No particular interventions are required is incorrect, as penicillin requires careful monitoring for efficacy and adverse effects.
Question 4 of 5
The patient tells the nurse, 'I thought I was just depressed, but my doctor says I have bipolar disorder. What is that?' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bipolar disorder features mood cycles-depression and mania (hyperactivity)-per DSM-5, distinct from unipolar depression. It's not just cyclic depression, nor ADHD-linked. Seasonal shifts are separate (SA
D). Mania-depression cycles define it, clarifying diagnosis.
Question 5 of 5
A 24-year-old beautician has a history of chronic fatigue since an attack of infectious mononucleosis when aged 20. Her fatigue has become progressively worse. Her periods are painful, heavy and irregular. Her BP is 116/62 (supine) and 92/52 (standing). Serum Na+ is 132, K+ 5.5, creatinine 60 μmol/L. Which of the following would be most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fatigue, orthostatic hypotension (116/62 to 92/52), hyponatremia (Na+ 132), and hyperkalemia (K+ 5.5) post-mononucleosis suggest Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency). Fludrocortisone treats mineralocorticoid deficiency but needs diagnosis first. CBT addresses fatigue psychologically, not endocrine causes. Aciclovir treats viral infections, irrelevant here. Tetracosactide (Synacthen) tests adrenal function, diagnosing Addison's by cortisol response, most appropriate to confirm before lifelong therapy. This diagnostic step ensures accurate management, critical in suspected adrenal failure.