ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dosing regimen for Morphine typically ranges from 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours as needed for pain. This dosing schedule allows for effective management of pain while monitoring for potential side effects and adjusting the dosage according to the patient's response. Options B, C, and D have dosing regimens that are not within the typical range for Morphine administration and could lead to inappropriate dosing and potential harm to the patient.
Question 2 of 5
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline, a TCA, needs 4-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect-serotonin/norepinephrine buildup, per pharmacology. ‘Looking better' dismisses feelings. Switching meds is premature-2 weeks is early. Months overstates delay. Weeks to effect educates, setting realistic hope.
Question 3 of 5
A 29-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is able to purchase phencyclidine from another user of this substance. He takes a 'triple dose' of the substance. Which of the following effects is likely to be observed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PCP overdose (triple dose) causes dissociative effects; eyes remain open , with nystagmus common. Loss of consciousness needs higher doses. Numbness occurs, but open eyes are hallmark. Normal gait and speech (E) contradict ataxia. PCP's profile fits this.
Question 4 of 5
Graded dose-response curves are most useful for determining
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Graded dose-response curves plot individual response intensity to dose increases (e.g., pain relief), a pharmacodynamic tool. Population curves (e.g., ED50) suit groups, not individuals. Large or small groups aggregate data, missing individual nuance. Individual focus defines graded curves, key for tailoring therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A 52-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections complains of easy bruising as well as chronic fatigue. She is maintained on daily antibiotic prophylaxis with trimethoprim. Which of the following hematologic effects is likely as a result of long-term therapy with trimethoprim?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trimethoprim's folate antagonism with long-term use causes megaloblastic anemia . Bruising and fatigue reflect impaired erythropoiesis. Aplastic anemia , microcytic , normocytic , and pernicious (E) don't fit. This reversible effect requires folate supplementation.