ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which white blood cells are involved in releasing histamine during an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basophils. Basophils are a type of white blood cell that release histamine during allergic reactions. They contain granules filled with histamine, which is released when they encounter an allergen. Monocytes, eosinophils, and neutrophils do not release histamine during allergic reactions. Monocytes are involved in immune response and inflammation, eosinophils are responsible for combating parasitic infections, and neutrophils are primarily involved in fighting bacterial infections.
Question 2 of 5
After a Whippie procedure for cancer of the pancreas, a client is to receive the following intravenous (IV) fluids over 24 hours; 1000 ml D5W; 0.5 liter normal saline; 1500 ml D5NS. In addition, an antibiotic piggyback in 50 ml D5W is ordered every 8 hours. The nurse calculates that the clients IV fluid intake Tor 24 hours will be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (3750ml) because the client will receive 1000ml D5W + 500ml normal saline + 1500ml D5NS + 50ml antibiotic every 8 hours x 3 times in 24 hours (50ml x 3 = 150ml). Adding these together gives a total of 1000ml + 500ml + 1500ml + 150ml = 3150ml.
Therefore, the client's IV fluid intake for 24 hours will be 3150ml.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is working with a dying client and his family. Which communication technique is most important to use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active listening. Active listening involves fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said. In end-of-life care, it is crucial to provide emotional support and create a safe space for clients and their families to express their thoughts and feelings. Active listening helps the nurse to establish trust, show empathy, and validate the emotions of the clients and their families. Reflection (
A), Clarification (
B), and Interpretation (
C) may be beneficial in certain situations, but in end-of-life care, active listening plays a pivotal role in fostering meaningful and supportive communication.
Question 4 of 5
. A client is admitted to the health care facility for evaluation for Addison’s disease. Which laboratory test result best supports a diagnosis of Addison’s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Step-by-step rationale for choice C (Serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L) being the best to support a diagnosis of Addison's disease:
1. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion.
2. Decreased aldosterone causes hyperkalemia due to impaired potassium excretion.
3. Elevated serum potassium levels above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) are a classic finding in Addison's disease.
4.
Therefore, a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L strongly supports the diagnosis of Addison's disease.
Summary:
-
Choice A (BUN level): BUN is not specific to Addison's disease and does not directly relate to adrenal function.
-
Choice B (Serum sodium level): Hyponatremia is a common finding in Addison's disease, but it is not as specific as hyperkalemia.
-
Choice D (Blood glucose level): Blood glucose
Question 5 of 5
Which finding is an early indicator of bladder cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Painless hematuria. This is an early indicator of bladder cancer because blood in the urine without pain is a common symptom in the early stages of the disease. Nocturia (
B), frequent urination at night, is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Occasional polyuria (
C), excessive urination, can be a symptom of diabetes or kidney disease. Dysuria (
D), painful urination, is more indicative of urinary tract infections or urethritis.
Therefore, painless hematuria is the most specific early indicator of bladder cancer among the choices provided.