ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Question 2 of 5
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening.
Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
Question 3 of 5
During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating a pregnant client for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by elevated blood pressure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema. Hypertension is a key sign of preeclampsia, and if present, further evaluation and monitoring are necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and the fetus.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare provider in the emergency department is caring for a client who comes to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the provider the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis indicating intra-abdominal bleeding, which can be associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign is a facial spasm related to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during early pregnancy. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix in early pregnancy.
Question 5 of 5
A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa.
Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.