ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering analgesics is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain as it directly targets the pain receptors and provides relief. Repositioning the patient may help in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management but might not provide immediate relief. Administering IV fluids is not a standard intervention for acute pain unless dehydration is contributing to the pain.
Question 2 of 5
A client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of whole grains.' Whole grains are beneficial for individuals with hypertension as they can help promote heart health. Whole grains are high in fiber, which can help lower blood pressure. Option A is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate but not restricted to 2 liters per day. Option C is incorrect as it is recommended to have smaller, more frequent meals rather than 3 large meals to help manage hypertension. Option D is incorrect; although foods high in potassium can be beneficial for hypertension, the most appropriate dietary modification to include in this scenario is increasing whole grain intake.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia.
Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach.
Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy.
Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.
Question 4 of 5
A client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should drink a sugar solution for a glucose challenge test, which is part of the nonstress test protocol during pregnancy.
Choice A is incorrect because adequate hydration is generally recommended before the test.
Choice C is incorrect as the nonstress test monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements, not contractions.
Choice D is incorrect as the nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity.
Question 5 of 5
Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (
B), sodium levels (
C), or calcium levels (
D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.
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