ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is in an urgent care center and is receiving treatment for mild hyponatremia after spending several hours doing gardening work in the heat of the day. The nurse expects that which drug therapy will be used to treat this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing hyponatremia, a condition where there is an imbalance of electrolytes in the body due to excess water intake or loss of sodium-rich fluids like sweat. In this case, the patient has developed mild hyponatremia likely due to the combination of gardening work and exposure to heat.
Question 2 of 5
This describes the relationship of the blood concentration attained with initial dosing and the dose of drug given:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The volume of distribution (Vd) is a pharmacokinetic parameter that describes the relationship of the blood concentration attained with initial dosing and the dose of drug given. It is a theoretical volume that indicates the extent of drug distribution in the body relative to its concentration in the bloodstream. A high volume of distribution suggests that the drug is extensively distributed throughout the tissues of the body, while a low volume of distribution indicates that the drug is largely confined to the bloodstream.
Therefore, Vd is the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse administers atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with hypertension. Which finding would prompt the nurse to hold the dose and notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, lowers blood pressure and heart rate by blocking sympathetic stimulation. A heart rate of 52 bpm is bradycardic (below 60 bpm), a threshold for holding beta-blockers due to risk of inadequate perfusion, especially in hypertension where cardiac output matters. Holding and notifying the physician prevents harm, allowing reassessment. BP of 130/80 is controlled, not urgent. Respiratory rate of 18 and temperature of 98.6°F are normal. Atenolol's selectivity for beta-1 receptors makes bradycardia a key adverse effect, requiring vigilance. This action aligns with nursing protocols for beta-blockers, prioritizing cardiovascular stability, making B the finding warranting immediate intervention.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with schizophrenia. The patients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conventional antipsychotics like haloperidol have anticholinergic effects, including dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. Urinary retention is a medical emergency if severe, risking bladder damage or infection, requiring immediate physician reporting. Acute dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect, not anticholinergic, though urgent. Severe headache could indicate various issues but isn't a typical anticholinergic effect. Hypertension isn't directly linked to anticholinergic action (hypotension is more common). The nurse prioritizes urinary retention due to its potential for rapid complications, aligning with anticholinergic pharmacology, making choice D the most critical to report.
Question 5 of 5
Which one of the following CNS receptors is directly coupled to an ion channel so that the effects of its activation do not involve second messenger systems?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nicotinic acetylcholine (N ACh) receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, directly opening to allow sodium and potassium flux upon acetylcholine binding, producing rapid effects without second messengers—key in neuromuscular transmission. Alpha-adrenergic (a NE) receptors couple to G-proteins, using second messengers like IP3 or cAMP. D2A dopamine receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase via Gi proteins, involving cAMP. Mu opioid receptors (µ) also use Gi proteins, reducing cAMP and opening potassium channels indirectly. 5HT2 serotonin receptors activate phospholipase C, generating IP3. The nicotinic receptor's direct ion channel linkage distinguishes it, enabling fast synaptic responses without the delay of intracellular signaling cascades.