ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology The Respiratory System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following agents is available as a patch for once-daily use and is likely to provide steady drug levels to treat Alzheimer's disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rivastigmine, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, treats Alzheimer's by increasing acetylcholine, improving cognition. Its transdermal patch delivers steady drug levels daily, minimizing peaks/troughs and reducing GI side effects (e.g., nausea) compared to oral forms, enhancing compliance. Donepezil, memantine, and galantamine are oral, lacking a once-daily patch; donepezil's long half-life mimics steady-state but isn't transdermal. Glatiramer treats MS, not Alzheimer's. Rivastigmine's patch formulation ensures consistent cholinergic enhancement, critical for sustained symptom relief in Alzheimer's, distinguishing it as the optimal choice here.
Question 2 of 5
A 48-year-old woman with 2-year history of rheumatoid arthritis has not had sufficient relief with methotrexate alone. Her physician prescribes etanercept to help control her symptoms. How does etanercept work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Etanercept, a TNF-α inhibitor, works by inhibiting TNF-α signaling , reducing RA inflammation. Substance P depletion , COX inhibition , and chemotaxis inhibition are unrelated. Arachidonic acid prevention (E) isn't its role. This targets a key RA cytokine.
Question 3 of 5
The client receives estrogen for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse why he is receiving a female hormone. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prostate cancer is androgen-dependent, relying on testosterone and other androgens for growth. Estrogen therapy suppresses pituitary secretion of luteinizing hormone, reducing testicular androgen production, effectively starving the cancer. This hormonal manipulation is a standard approach.
Choice A inaccurately suggests direct cell death, not estrogen's mechanism.
Choice B overstates testosterone elimination; it's reduced, not eradicated.
Choice D misattributes nutrient blockade, unrelated to estrogen's action. The nurse's best response (
C) clarifies estrogen's role in androgen suppression, addressing the client's confusion with precision and relevance to his treatment.
Question 4 of 5
Which statement is accurate concerning the use of aspirin (ASA) to treat pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Enteric-coated aspirin reduces GI irritation, an accurate statement for pain management. High doses are for anticoagulation, not pain. Herbs increase bleeding risk, not inflammation relief. Low doses prevent clotting, not inflammation. B enhances safety, making it correct.
Question 5 of 5
what is the route of INSULIN GLARGINE:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a type of long-acting insulin that is given via subcutaneous injection. Subcutaneous administration involves injecting the medication into the fatty tissue layer just beneath the skin. This route allows for slow and consistent absorption of the insulin into the bloodstream, providing a prolonged effect on lowering blood sugar levels. Insulin cannot be taken orally because it would be broken down by the digestive system before it could be effective. Intravenous (IV) administration is also not appropriate for insulin glargine because it is meant to have a slow, sustained release in the body, which cannot be achieved with IV administration. Sublingual administration, where a medication is placed under the tongue for absorption, is not suitable for insulin as it requires specific pathways for absorption that are not present under the tongue.