ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 55-year-old man is concerned about hair loss. The nurse expects that the patient’s baldness may be treated with which drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Finasteride is an FDA-approved medication for male pattern baldness (androgenetic alopecia). It works by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is responsible for hair follicle miniaturization. Dexamethasone (
A), para-aminobenzoic acid (
B), and mupirocin (
C) are not used to treat hair loss.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign of Hemolytic anemia:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to insufficient oxygen in the blood. It is not a typical clinical sign of hemolytic anemia. Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the premature destruction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, hemoglobinuria (presence of hemoglobin in the urine), jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes), and sometimes lower back pain due to kidney involvement. Cyanosis is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiovascular conditions where oxygen levels are affected.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. The patient is in need of rapid diuresis. Which class of diuretic does the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loop diuretics are the most effective diuretics for patients with significantly reduced kidney function, like a creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, act on the ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption. They are able to produce a rapid and potent diuresis even in patients with impaired renal function. This class of diuretics is commonly used in patients with acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease to promote diuresis and manage fluid overload.
Question 4 of 5
In repeated (chronic or multiple) dosing:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If the dosing interval exceeds the drug's half-life significantly, the body eliminates the drug fully before the next dose, minimizing accumulation.
Question 5 of 5
The goal of androgen therapy in men is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Androgen therapy in men, typically testosterone replacement, aims to boost libido and treat erectile dysfunction by restoring normal androgen levels, countering hypogonadism's effects like reduced sexual drive. Decreasing libido contradicts its purpose, as low testosterone already dims desire. It doesn't release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)-exogenous androgens may suppress FSH and LH via feedback inhibition. Increasing luteinizing hormone (LH) isn't the goal; therapy bypasses LH by directly providing testosterone. Raising libido aligns with correcting symptoms of androgen deficiency, improving quality of life and sexual function, a primary clinical indication supported by its action on androgen receptors in sexual tissues.