ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which drug is used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. It works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, displacing the opioids and temporarily reversing their effects. Naloxone is commonly administered in emergency situations to quickly restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals who have overdosed on opioids. Aspirin (choice
A) and Advil (choice
B) are non-opioid pain relievers and do not reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. Ondansetron (choice
D) is an anti-nausea medication and does not counteract the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
Question 2 of 5
A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain. Physical exam reveals rebound tenderness and decreased bowel sounds. An emergent appendectomy is performed. Postsurgically, he is given an NSAID along with morphine for pain control. Which of the following NSAIDs is commonly used as an adjunct to opioids postsurgically?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Post-appendectomy pain management often combines opioids like morphine with NSAIDs for synergy. Acetaminophen is an analgesic but not a true NSAID (lacks significant anti-inflammatory action). Celecoxib , a COX-2 inhibitor, is less common acutely due to cost and milder effect. Ibuprofen is effective but less potent parenterally. Ketorolac , a potent NSAID, is widely used postsurgically-available IV/IM, it reduces inflammation and pain, complementing morphine's central action. Naproxen (E) is oral, less ideal acutely. Ketorolac's rapid onset and efficacy in reducing opioid requirements make it standard. Its short-term use minimizes GI risks, aligning with surgical protocols, distinguishing it from other options for acute postoperative pain control.
Question 3 of 5
An asymptomatic 46-year-old Indian woman is found to have an elevated serum calcium (2.80 mmol/L, corrected) at a 'well-woman' screening clinic. Other chemistries are normal, in particular phosphate is 0.8 mmol/L (normal range 0.8-1.45), and parathormone (PTH) is 5.4 pmol/L (normal range <0.9-5.4). She has a sedentary occupation in a northern UK city. Which of the following would be most suitable management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mild hypercalcemia (2.80 mmol/L) with borderline PTH (5.4 pmol/L) suggests primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), common in asymptomatic women. Alfacalcidol treats hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Sevelamer binds phosphate, irrelevant here. Teriparatide increases calcium, contraindicated. Surgical parathyroidectomy suits severe cases, but mild, asymptomatic PHPT (calcium <3.0 mmol/L) warrants watchful waiting with monitoring, most suitable to assess progression without immediate intervention. This conservative approach balances risks, especially in a sedentary northern climate lacking vitamin D excess.
Question 4 of 5
In severe renal failure:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In severe renal failure, the clearance of digoxin is reduced, requiring smaller maintenance doses to avoid toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
A client with myasthenia gravis frequently complains of weakness and fatigue. The physician plans to identify whether the client is responding to an overdose of the medication or a worsening of the disease. A tensilon test is performed. Which of the following would indicate that the client is experiencing an overdose of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a Tensilon test, edrophonium chloride is administered to differentiate between myasthenic crisis (worsening of the disease) and cholinergic crisis (overdose of medication). A temporary worsening of symptoms, such as increased weakness, indicates a cholinergic crisis due to an overdose of anticholinesterase medications. Improvement suggests myasthenic crisis, while no change is inconclusive. Muscle spasms are not specific to an overdose.
Therefore, worsening symptoms indicate an overdose.