ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend as the best source of calcium?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is a rich source of calcium and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. While broccoli and almonds also contain calcium, cheddar cheese provides a higher amount per serving. Fortified orange juice may contain added calcium, but it is not as concentrated a source as cheddar cheese.
Therefore, the best choice for a client with osteoporosis seeking a high calcium food is cheddar cheese.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Food exchange lists are valuable resources for individuals with diabetes as they provide structured meal planning guidance. This helps individuals manage their diabetes effectively by controlling their carbohydrate intake.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because personal blogs may not provide reliable and evidence-based information, food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine may not be specific for diabetes meal planning, and diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference is not directly related to meal planning for diabetes management.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is a finding that the nurse should report to the provider when caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypotension, so a low blood pressure reading should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management.
Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 60/min is considered normal, but any further decrease should be monitored. A serum potassium level of 4 mEq/L is also within the normal range. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is typically considered normal as well.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (
Choice
A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (
Choice
B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (
Choice
D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.