ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which patient problem is a priority for patients receiving epidermal growth factor receptor inhibitors?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) inhibitors commonly cause skin-related side effects, such as rash, dryness, and paronychia (nail inflammation). These side effects can lead to tissue injury and discomfort, impacting the patient's quality of life. While bone marrow suppression and reduced platelet activity are concerns with other chemotherapies, they are less common with EGFR inhibitors. Alopecia is also less frequently associated with these drugs. The nurse should prioritize monitoring and managing skin-related side effects to prevent complications and ensure patient comfort.
Question 2 of 5
Aspirin:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin, or acetylsalicylic acid, is metabolized to salicylic acid and acetic acid, not acetone, making the hydrolysis statement false. At low doses, it follows first-order kinetics, where elimination rate is proportional to concentration, a true statement reflecting its predictable clearance under therapeutic levels. It's primarily conjugated in the liver (e.g., to salicyluric acid), but excreted mainly via urine, not bile, so that's false. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) by acetylating it, unlike reversible NSAIDs, making that option false. The correct answer highlights aspirin's pharmacokinetic behavior at low doses, critical for its use in analgesia or cardioprotection, where steady-state effects depend on consistent elimination, contrasting with zero-order kinetics at overdose levels.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following antipsychotic agents is considered to be the most potent and, thus, have the highest risk of extrapyramidal symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluphenazine, a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic, strongly blocks D2 receptors, requiring lower doses for efficacy but increasing EPS risk (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism) due to intense dopamine antagonism in the nigrostriatal pathway. Thioridazine and chlorpromazine, low-potency first-generation drugs, have weaker D2 affinity, causing more sedation and anticholinergic effects than EPS. Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has low D2 potency and minimal EPS. Clozapine avoids EPS with broad receptor activity. Fluphenazine's potency, measured by dose equivalence and clinical data, correlates with its elevated EPS risk, distinguishing it here.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin (Coumadin) has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicates that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive which antidote?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. In cases of warfarin overdose or excessive anticoagulation leading to bleeding events, the antidote is vitamin K. Vitamin K helps to reverse the effects of warfarin by promoting the production of clotting factors that are inhibited by warfarin. Administering vitamin K can help normalize the patient's coagulation parameters and stop bleeding in cases of warfarin over-anticoagulation.
Question 5 of 5
Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs which act as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs that act as depressants on the central nervous system. They slow down brain activity, leading to relaxation, drowsiness, and in higher doses, inducing sleep. These drugs are commonly used to reduce anxiety, promote sleep, or induce anesthesia.
Therefore, the correct classification for sedatives and hypnotics is as depressants.