Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for fatigue, muscle weakness, restlessness, and flushed skin. The patient is at risk for dehydration due to the combination of high temperature, age, and thiazide diuretic use. Thiazide diuretics can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including hypokalemia, which can cause symptoms such as muscle weakness and fatigue. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is crucial in this scenario to prevent complications.

A: Making sure he drinks 8 glasses of water a day is not the priority as he is already at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
C: Hyperchloremia is not a common concern in this scenario based on the given lab values.
D: Neurologic changes may occur in severe cases of electrolyte imbalances but monitoring for physical symptoms such as fatigue and muscle weakness is more relevant at this stage.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
Step 1: Identify the correct answer - C: “I feel dizzy, I’ll skip my dose for a few days.”

Step 2: Explanation - This statement indicates that the client is experiencing a known side effect of prazosin (dizziness) and plans to stop the medication temporarily without consulting the healthcare provider, showing noncompliance.

Step 3: Supporting details - Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment and potential health risks.

Step 4: Comparison with other choices:
A: This statement shows the client questioning the need for medication but does not indicate current noncompliance.
B: This statement demonstrates difficulty reading labels but does not directly relate to medication compliance.
D: This statement shows awareness about medication interactions but does not indicate noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen.
Summary:
Choice C is correct as it directly reflects noncompliance by planning to skip doses without consulting the healthcare provider, leading to potential adverse outcomes.

Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The waiting area with the television turned off. This setting provides a quiet environment, minimizing distractions for the patient with a hearing deficit. It allows the nurse to communicate effectively by speaking clearly and facing the patient directly. Option A is incorrect because a closed door may not be enough to reduce background noise. Option C is incorrect as pain medication may affect the patient's ability to concentrate. Option D is incorrect because the occupational therapist working on leg exercises may create additional noise and distractions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pneumonia Carnii. Pulmonary complications in AIDS patients are commonly caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii (previously known as Pneumocystis carinii) pneumonia. This opportunistic infection targets the lungs of immunocompromised individuals, leading to severe respiratory issues. Kaposi's Sarcoma (
A) is a cancer commonly seen in AIDS patients but does not directly cause pulmonary complications. Filterable Virus (
C) is a vague term and not a known cause of pulmonary issues in AIDS patients. Staphylococcus bacteria (
D) can cause infections in AIDS patients but is less common than Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in causing pulmonary complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Surgical removal. Surgical removal of the cancerous tumor is the best treatment before metastasis because it physically removes the cancer cells. Chemotherapy and radiation are used to treat cancer after it has spread, not as the primary treatment.
Choice D is incorrect because not all types of cancer can be effectively treated with all three options.