ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conducting the interview in a quiet environment, such as the waiting area with the television turned off, minimizes background noise and distractions for a patient with a hearing deficit. This setting allows for better communication and ensures that the patient can hear and understand the nurse clearly.
A: Conducting the interview in the patient's room with the door closed may still have background noise from the hallway or other rooms.
C: Conducting the interview before administration of pain medication is not relevant to improving communication for a patient with a hearing deficit.
D: Conducting the interview in the waiting room while the occupational therapist is working on leg exercises introduces additional noise and distractions, making it difficult for the patient to focus on the conversation.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse, in assessing the adequacy of a client's fluid replacement during the first 2 to 3 days following full- thickness burns to the trunk and right thigh, would be aware that the most significant data would be obtained from recording
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary output every hour. This is because assessing urinary output is crucial for monitoring fluid balance in burn patients. Adequate urine output indicates proper fluid replacement, while decreased output may indicate dehydration. Recording weights daily (choice
A) may be important but not as immediate and specific as urinary output. Blood pressure every 15 minutes (choice
B) is too frequent and not directly related to fluid replacement in this context. Monitoring peripheral edema every 4 hours (choice
D) is not as reliable as urinary output for assessing fluid status.
Question 3 of 5
An African client has been diagnosed with Osteomyelitis. The nurse expects to assess which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: positive wound cultures. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone that is typically diagnosed through wound cultures. This assessment helps to identify the causative organism and guide appropriate treatment.
Choices A and D are not typical findings in osteomyelitis.
Choice A describes symptoms of poor circulation which are not specific to osteomyelitis.
Choice B, decreased white blood cell count, is typically not seen in the presence of an infection like osteomyelitis.
Question 4 of 5
When caring for Mr. Reyes, the nurse should assess for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered level of consciousness. This is crucial as it can indicate various underlying health issues affecting Mr. Reyes. Assessing for this helps in detecting potential neurological, metabolic, or cardiac issues.
A: Decreased carotid pulses - While important, it is not as critical as altered level of consciousness in this scenario.
C: Bleeding from oral cavity - This is important to address but does not take priority over assessing Mr. Reyes' level of consciousness.
D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is more specific to neurological assessments and may not be as urgent as assessing his level of consciousness.
Question 5 of 5
The clinical manifestations of Parkinson’s disease (bradykinesia rigidity and tremors) is directly related to a decreased level of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dopamine. Parkinson's disease is primarily caused by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain, leading to the characteristic symptoms of bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in movement control. Acetylcholine (
Choice
A) is not directly related to Parkinson's disease, although its imbalance can contribute to other movement disorders. Serotonin (
Choice
B) and Phenylalanine (
Choice
D) are not primarily involved in the pathophysiology of Parkinson's disease.