ATI RN
Introduction to Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The female client has a fungal infection and will receive nystatin (Mycostatin). What assessment data is critical for the nurse to review prior to administering this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nystatin, an antifungal for candidiasis, is Category C, indicating potential fetal risks aren't fully ruled out. Assessing whether the client could be pregnant is critical to evaluate safety, as pregnancy might necessitate alternative treatments or physician consultation to avoid harm. Diet type or fat content minimally affects nystatin's topical or oral efficacy, unrelated to its safety profile. Height and weight influence dosing for some drugs, but nystatin's standard dosing isn't weight-based for most indications. Pregnancy status directly impacts risk-benefit decisions, especially for a reproductive-age female, aligning with pharmacological precautions. The nurse's review of this data ensures no teratogenic effects are risked unknowingly, making C the most critical assessment prior to administration.
Question 2 of 5
Alprazolam's therapeutic use is what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alprazolam is a medication commonly used in treating anxiety disorders, panic disorders, and anxiety associated with depression. It belongs to a class of drugs known as benzodiazepines, which act on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Alprazolam helps to reduce feelings of anxiety and promote relaxation by enhancing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain. It is not used for relief of drowsiness, bronchospasms, or cardiac arrest.
Question 3 of 5
Indicate the spot of the median effective dose on the frequency distribution curve.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Median effective dose (ED50) is where 50% of subjects respond, typically the curve's midpoint (marked ED50), per pharmacodynamic curves. Beginning lacks response. Ascending leg is below 50%. Descending leg is post-peak. ED50's position defines it, aligning with standard graphs.
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate therapy for the control of preeclampsia. A nurse discovers that the client is encountering toxicity from the medication in which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity can cause respiratory depression, which is indicated by a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute or less. This is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention. Deep tendon reflexes are typically absent in severe toxicity, not present. A urine output of 25 ml/hr may indicate renal impairment but is not specific to magnesium toxicity. A serum magnesium level of 7 mEq/L is elevated but does not alone confirm toxicity without clinical symptoms.
Therefore, respiratory depression is the key indicator.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. The client's heart rate is 58 beats per minute. What is the nurse's best action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin slows heart rate via vagal stimulation, treating heart failure but risking bradycardia if the rate drops too low. A heart rate of 58 bpm is below the typical threshold (60 bpm) for holding digoxin, indicating potential toxicity or excessive effect, especially in heart failure where compensatory tachycardia may mask issues. Holding the dose and notifying the physician allows reassessment of digoxin levels or need for adjustment, prioritizing safety. Administering as ordered risks worsening bradycardia, potentially leading to hemodynamic instability. Half-dosing lacks protocol support and delays medical input. Blood pressure informs but doesn't address the primary concern. Holding and notifying aligns with nursing judgment and digoxin's narrow therapeutic index, making B the best action to prevent adverse outcomes.