Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank -Nurselytic

Questions 68

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ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse would evaluate that the patient understands what triggers allergic rhinitis by which of the following patient responses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because airborne pollens and molds are common triggers for allergic rhinitis. Understanding these triggers helps in avoiding exposure and managing symptoms.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to allergic rhinitis triggers, focusing instead on other forms of medication or topical applications. By understanding airborne triggers, the patient can take appropriate preventive measures.

Question 2 of 5

When assessing a client with a disorder of the hematopoietic or the lymphatic, why is it important for the nurse to obtain a dietary history?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because compromised nutrition can lead to deficiencies in essential nutrients required for the production of blood cells and hemoglobin. Iron, vitamins, and minerals obtained from food are crucial for erythropoiesis and maintaining a healthy immune system. Without these nutrients, the body may struggle to produce an adequate amount of healthy red blood cells, leading to anemia and compromised immune function.


Choice B is incorrect because excessive fat in the diet is not directly linked to interfering with the production of blood cells and hemoglobin.
Choice C is incorrect as inconsistent dieting may affect overall health but is not specifically related to hematopoiesis.
Choice D is incorrect because while iron and protein are important for blood cell production, excessive amounts of these elements are unlikely to interfere with the production of blood cells and hemoglobin.

Question 3 of 5

. A client is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone) daily. Which statement best explains why the nurse should instruct the client to take this drug in the morning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because morning administration of prednisone mimics the body's natural corticosteroid secretion pattern. Cortisol, a natural corticosteroid, is typically highest in the morning and decreases throughout the day. By taking prednisone in the morning, the client aligns the drug's peak concentration with the body's natural cortisol levels, optimizing its therapeutic effects.


Choice A is incorrect because while taking the drug at the same time daily is important for consistency, it does not specifically address the rationale for morning administration.
Choice B is incorrect as the effectiveness of prednisone is not solely dependent on its half-life but also on alignment with the body's natural rhythm.
Choice D is also incorrect as prednisone can be taken with food and does not necessarily require an empty stomach for optimal absorption.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the ff nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a client with congestive heart failure who has decreased cardiac output?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess apical heart before administering digitalis. This is important because digitalis can slow down the heart rate, so it is crucial to monitor the client's heart rate before giving the medication to prevent further decrease in cardiac output. Encouraging activities that engage the Valsalva maneuver (
A) is contraindicated in clients with congestive heart failure as it can lead to increased intra-thoracic pressure and decreased venous return, worsening cardiac output. Encouraging the client to perform exercises (
B) may also increase cardiac workload and exacerbate symptoms. Offering small frequent feedings (
D) is generally beneficial for clients with congestive heart failure to prevent overeating and promote easier digestion, but it does not directly address the decreased cardiac output concern in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

Before, during and after seizure. The nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Side lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration of secretions and promotes drainage from the mouth during and after a seizure. Placing the patient in a side lying position also helps prevent injury from falling and facilitates monitoring of the patient's airway.

Incorrect choices:
A: Low fowler's - This position does not provide optimal airway protection and may increase the risk of aspiration during a seizure.
B: Modified trendelenburg - This position may worsen the patient's airway patency and does not facilitate drainage of secretions.
D: Supine - Placing the patient in a supine position can lead to aspiration and compromise the airway, especially during a seizure.

Summary: The side lying position is the most appropriate choice as it ensures airway protection, facilitates drainage, and reduces the risk of aspiration during and after a seizure.

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