ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delivery of the fetus. The only known cure for preeclampsia is the delivery of the fetus, as this condition typically resolves after giving birth. Since preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby, delivering the fetus is the most effective way to stop the progression of the condition. Magnesium sulfate (choice
A) is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia but does not cure the condition. Antihypertensive medications (choice
C) are used to manage blood pressure in preeclampsia but do not cure it. Administration of aspirin (choice
D) is used for prevention, not as a cure for preeclampsia.
Question 2 of 5
An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: missed. In a missed abortion, the fetus dies but is not immediately expelled from the uterus. This term specifically describes the situation where the fetus is retained in the uterus.
Choice A (inevitable) refers to a situation where abortion is certain to occur, choice C (incomplete) refers to partial expulsion of the fetus, and choice D (threatened) refers to a situation where the woman has vaginal bleeding, but the fetus is still viable.
Therefore, the term "missed" accurately describes the scenario where the fetus dies but remains in the uterus.
Question 3 of 5
In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incomplete abortion at 16 weeks may require a D&C to remove remaining tissue to prevent infection and complications. Incomplete abortion means not all fetal tissue has been expelled, posing a risk.
Choice A (complete abortion at 8 weeks) does not require a D&C as all tissue is expelled.
Choice C (threatened abortion at 6 weeks) does not necessitate immediate intervention.
Choice D (incomplete abortion at 10 weeks) is not the best choice as the risk of complications increases with gestational age.
Question 4 of 5
A patient taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer calcium gluconate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a low respiratory rate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction. Administering calcium gluconate helps reverse the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Increasing IV fluids (
Choice
A) is not directly related to treating respiratory depression. Vigorously stimulating the patient (
Choice
C) can exacerbate respiratory depression. Instructing the patient to take deep breaths (
Choice
D) may not be effective in addressing the underlying cause of respiratory depression due to magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (
B) as the cause. Placental previa (
A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (
C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned.
Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.