ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Clinical diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amount of amniotic fluid exceeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000-3000 ml. This amount is considered excessive and can indicate various maternal or fetal health conditions.
Choice A (1500 ml) is too low to qualify as polyhydramnios.
Choice C (1900 ml) falls within the normal range of amniotic fluid volume.
Choice D (2500 ml) is close to the threshold but may not always be considered excessive.
Therefore, the correct diagnosis of polyhydramnios is based on an amniotic fluid volume exceeding 3000 ml.
Question 2 of 5
Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Seat belts. Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are commonly caused by seat belts due to the mechanism of injury during a motor vehicle accident. When a sudden deceleration occurs, the body is restrained by the seat belt while the spine continues to move forward, leading to hyperflexion of the spine. This results in distraction forces at the thoracolumbar junction, causing injury.
Blunt trauma (choice
A) can cause various types of spinal injuries but is not specifically associated with flexion-distraction injuries. Rotational injury (choice
B) typically leads to injuries such as fractures or dislocations, not flexion-distraction injuries. Gunshot wounds (choice
D) can cause direct spinal damage, but they do not typically result in flexion-distraction injuries.
Question 3 of 5
A clinical feature that is indicative of transient tachypnea of the newborn is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Step 1: Transient tachypnea of the newborn is characterized by rapid respirations due to delayed reabsorption of fetal lung fluid.
Step 2: Rapid respirations of up to 120/minute is a common clinical feature seen in newborns with transient tachypnea.
Step 3: This rapid breathing pattern distinguishes it from other conditions.
Step 4: Marked recession of the rib cage is more indicative of respiratory distress syndrome.
Step 5: Transient tachypnea can occur in both normal and cesarean deliveries, so choice C is incorrect.
Step 6: Diminished respirations of less than 40/minute would not be expected in transient tachypnea.
Summary:
Choice A is correct because rapid respirations are a key clinical feature of transient tachypnea, while the other choices do not align with its characteristic presentation.
Question 4 of 5
Post maturity is a term that is used to describe a pregnancy that is equal to or more than
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (42 completed weeks) because a full-term pregnancy is considered to be around 40 weeks. Post maturity refers to a pregnancy that has exceeded the normal 40-week gestation period. At 42 weeks, the risk of complications such as stillbirth or issues with the placenta increases.
Choice A (40 completed weeks) is incorrect because this is considered a full-term pregnancy.
Choices B (38 completed weeks) and C (41 completed weeks) are incorrect as they do not meet the criteria for post maturity.
Question 5 of 5
When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rebound tenderness. Tenderness to percussion is similar to rebound tenderness because both involve assessing pain upon release of pressure. Rebound tenderness specifically evaluates pain when the examiner quickly removes pressure, indicating peritoneal inflammation. Tympany (
A) refers to a drum-like sound upon percussion, not pain. Guarding (
B) is involuntary muscle contractions in response to palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (
D) is localized pain arising from skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion tenderness.