Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Counselling on alternate therapies. Chronic tension headaches may be exacerbated by stress or other psychological factors, making counseling an appropriate intervention. The nurse can explore relaxation techniques, stress management strategies, or cognitive-behavioral therapy to help the client manage their headaches.

A: Instructing the client to monitor for signs of bruising or bleeding is unrelated to tension headaches and not a priority in this situation.

B: Suggesting eating and swallowing techniques that reduce the potential for aspiration is not relevant to tension headaches and is not the most appropriate intervention.

D: Advising the client to change sleeping positions frequently may help with other types of headaches but is not the most effective strategy for managing chronic tension headaches.

Correct Answer:

Rationale:
Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems.


Rationale: After setting the agenda, the nurse should proceed by asking about the patient's chief concerns or problems to focus the interview on the patient's needs. This step helps in gathering important information and establishing rapport. Introductions are usually done at the beginning of the interview, so it is not the next step. Explaining that the interview will be over in a few minutes can create anxiety and hinder open communication. Telling the patient about administering medications in 1 hour is not relevant at this point in the interview.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale:
Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis.

Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia.

Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium.

Step 4:
Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS.

Summary:
A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.
B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS.
C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (
A): Prostate-specific antigen (PS
A) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early.
Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use.

Summary of Incorrect

Choices:
B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels.
C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening.
D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.