ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 60-year-old male patient presents with severe and persistent pain in his left leg and hip that worsens with activity. After further evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true about osteosarcoma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be found in any bone but is most commonly located in the long bones of the legs. While it is more prevalent in children and young adults, it can also occur in older individuals like the 60-year-old male patient in this case. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better prognosis in osteosarcoma cases.
Therefore, all the statements provided are true regarding osteosarcoma, making option D the correct answer. Option A is accurate as osteosarcoma is more common in children and young adults. Option B is correct as early diagnosis improves the prognosis. Option C is accurate as osteosarcoma is frequently located in the leg bones.
Question 2 of 5
When reviewing the purpose/action of neurotransmitters as they interact with different receptors, the nursing instructor gives an example using acetylcholine. When acetylcholine is released at the sinoatrial node in the right atrium of the heart, it is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetylcholine acts as an inhibitory neurotransmitter at the sinoatrial node. It slows down the heart rate by decreasing the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the heart's natural pacemaker. Neurotransmitters do not have a charge, so choice A is incorrect.
Choice C is wrong as overstimulation is not a characteristic of acetylcholine at the sinoatrial node.
Choice D is also incorrect because acetylcholine actively influences heart rate regulation when released at the sinoatrial node.
Question 3 of 5
A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about prostate cancer. What should the nurse explain about the risks associated with this therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride, a type of androgen therapy, has been shown to reduce the risk of developing prostate cancer. It works by shrinking the prostate gland, which can help lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. However, while it may reduce the risk, regular screening is still recommended to monitor for any potential issues.
Choice B is incorrect because finasteride does have an impact on reducing the risk of prostate cancer.
Choice C is incorrect as finasteride is not known to increase the risk of developing prostate cancer.
Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does have an effect on reducing the risk of prostate cancer.
Question 4 of 5
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with suspected myasthenia gravis. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect to find?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ptosis (drooping eyelid) and diplopia (double vision) are classic symptoms of myasthenia gravis. Muscle atrophy (
Choice
A) is not a typical early manifestation of myasthenia gravis. While facial weakness (
Choice
B) can occur, it is not as specific as ptosis and diplopia. Increased muscle tone (
Choice
D) is more indicative of conditions like spasticity, not myasthenia gravis.
Question 5 of 5
A client presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath. The client's ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with chest pain, shortness of breath, and ST-segment elevation on ECG, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare the client for emergent coronary angiography. This procedure is crucial in diagnosing and treating acute myocardial infarction promptly. Administering aspirin (
Choice
A) is important but not the priority over emergent coronary angiography. Administering oxygen therapy (
Choice
C) is supportive but does not address the underlying cause of the ST-segment elevation. Initiating CPR (
Choice
D) is not the priority in this scenario as the client is stable and conscious.