ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary action of interferon alfa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Interferon alfa is an immunomodulatory agent that works by enhancing the immune system's ability to fight cancer. It has cytotoxic and cytostatic effects, meaning it can kill cancer cells or inhibit their growth. Additionally, it promotes the differentiation of stem cells, which can help restore normal cell function. While interferon alfa does produce cytokines and interleukins, its primary action is immunomodulation and direct effects on cancer cells. It does not primarily cause allergic reactions or produce red blood cells.
Question 2 of 9
A 55-year-old man is concerned about hair loss. The nurse expects that the patient’s baldness may be treated with which drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Finasteride is an FDA-approved medication for male pattern baldness (androgenetic alopecia). It works by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is responsible for hair follicle miniaturization. Dexamethasone (A), para-aminobenzoic acid (B), and mupirocin (C) are not used to treat hair loss.
Question 3 of 9
A neighbor tells nurse Maureen he has to have surgery and is reluctant to have any blood product transfusions because of a fear of contracting an infection. He asks the nurse what are his options. The nurse teaches the person that the safest blood product is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An autologous blood product is the safest option for the neighbor who is reluctant to have blood transfusions due to a fear of contracting an infection. Autologous blood is blood that is donated by the patient themselves prior to surgery. This type of blood product eliminates the risk of transmitting infections from other donors, as the blood comes from the patient's own body. It is considered the safest option for those concerned about infection transmission during blood transfusions.
Question 4 of 9
What patient history would the nurse recognize as a contraindication for beginning Niacin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gout is a metabolic disorder characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, which can be exacerbated by niacin therapy. Niacin can increase uric acid levels, potentially leading to gout flare-ups in patients with a history of gout. Therefore, a history of gout would be recognized as a contraindication for beginning Niacin therapy.
Question 5 of 9
A patient who has advanced cancer is receiving opioid medications around the clock to 'keep him comfortable' as he nears the end of his life. Which term best describes this type of therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Palliative therapy focuses on relieving symptoms and improving quality of life for patients with serious or life-limiting illnesses, such as advanced cancer. The goal is not to cure the disease but to provide comfort and alleviate suffering. In this case, the patient is receiving opioids around the clock to manage pain and ensure comfort, which is a hallmark of palliative care. Maintenance therapy is used to sustain a patient's condition, supportive therapy addresses specific symptoms, and supplemental therapy provides additional treatment. Therefore, palliative therapy is the most appropriate term for this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A newly admitted client takes digoxin 0.25 mg/day. The nurse knows that which is the serum therapeutic range for digoxin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic range for serum digoxin levels is typically considered to be between 1.0 to 2.5 ng/mL. This range allows for optimal therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels below 1.0 ng/mL may be subtherapeutic, while levels above 2.5 ng/mL may increase the risk of toxicity, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. Therefore, maintaining the digoxin level within the range of 1.0 to 2.5 ng/mL is crucial for safe and effective therapy.
Question 7 of 9
A 9-year-old boy is sent for neurologic evaluation because of episodes of apparent inattention. Over the past year, the child has experienced episodes during which he develops a blank look on his face and his eyes blink for 15 seconds. He immediately resumes his previous activity. Which one the following best describes this patient's seizures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Absence seizures, typical in childhood, feature brief (10-20 second) lapses in awareness with staring and eye blinking, followed by immediate resumption of activity, as described. Simple partial seizures preserve consciousness with focal symptoms (e.g., twitching). Complex partial seizures impair awareness longer, with automatisms. Tonic-clonic seizures involve convulsions. Myoclonic seizures cause jerks without staring. The short duration, blank look, and rapid recovery align with absence seizures' EEG pattern (3 Hz spike-and-wave), distinguishing it here.
Question 8 of 9
In repeated (chronic or multiple) dosing:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If the dosing interval exceeds the drug's half-life significantly, the body eliminates the drug fully before the next dose, minimizing accumulation.
Question 9 of 9
What is the primary action of interferon alfa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Interferon alfa is an immunomodulatory agent that works by enhancing the immune system's ability to fight cancer. It has cytotoxic and cytostatic effects, meaning it can kill cancer cells or inhibit their growth. Additionally, it promotes the differentiation of stem cells, which can help restore normal cell function. While interferon alfa does produce cytokines and interleukins, its primary action is immunomodulation and direct effects on cancer cells. It does not primarily cause allergic reactions or produce red blood cells.