ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is prescribed clonidine (Catapres) for hypertension. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clonidine, an alpha-2 agonist, lowers BP but risks rebound hypertension if stopped abruptly. Tapering off shows understanding, preventing this danger. Stopping if normal or extra doses risk instability. Chewing isn't advised'oral absorption suffices. Tapering aligns with clonidine's withdrawal risk, critical in hypertension management, making C the statement of effective teaching.
Question 2 of 9
The goal of androgen therapy in men is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Androgen therapy in men, typically testosterone replacement, aims to boost libido and treat erectile dysfunction by restoring normal androgen levels, countering hypogonadism's effects like reduced sexual drive. Decreasing libido contradicts its purpose, as low testosterone already dims desire. It doesn't release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)-exogenous androgens may suppress FSH and LH via feedback inhibition. Increasing luteinizing hormone (LH) isn't the goal; therapy bypasses LH by directly providing testosterone. Raising libido aligns with correcting symptoms of androgen deficiency, improving quality of life and sexual function, a primary clinical indication supported by its action on androgen receptors in sexual tissues.
Question 3 of 9
Antihistamines block the actions of histamine at the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antihistamines for allergies (e.g., diphenhydramine) target H1 receptors , blocking histamine's effects like itching or sneezing. B1 and B2 receptors (choices B, C) involve adrenergic responses (e.g., heart rate, bronchodilation), unrelated to histamine. C1 isn't a recognized receptor. H1 blockade is the mechanism for allergy relief, making choice A correct, reflecting antihistamines' specific pharmacological action critical for nurses to understand.
Question 4 of 9
A 31-year-old woman is planning to take a 7-day cruise to the Caribbean islands. She has never been on a ship before and fears developing motion sickness. She purchases scopolamine transdermal patch. When is the best time for her to place the patch to maximize drug efficacy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scopolamine prevents motion sickness via anticholinergic action. Applying prior to symptoms -ensures prophylaxis. After nausea (A, B) or vomiting is too late. Memory loss is a side effect, not timing. Preemptive use maximizes efficacy for her cruise.
Question 5 of 9
What is the primary action of interferon alfa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Interferon alfa is an immunomodulatory agent that works by enhancing the immune system's ability to fight cancer. It has cytotoxic and cytostatic effects, meaning it can kill cancer cells or inhibit their growth. Additionally, it promotes the differentiation of stem cells, which can help restore normal cell function. While interferon alfa does produce cytokines and interleukins, its primary action is immunomodulation and direct effects on cancer cells. It does not primarily cause allergic reactions or produce red blood cells.
Question 6 of 9
A mother asks the nurse when she should give her child cough medicine. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cough suppressants relieve dry, disruptive coughs , aiding rest. Green secretions need clearance, fever signals illness, and bronchitis may require expectorants. D targets appropriate use, making it the best response.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) and notes bruising and petechiae on the patient™s extremities. The nurse will request an order for which laboratory test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should request an order for a platelet level to assess the patient's platelet count. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with the blood clotting process. Bruising and petechiae may be signs of decreased platelet count or impaired platelet function. Monitoring the platelet level will help determine if the patient's symptoms are related to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). While the International Normalized Ratio (INR) is commonly used to monitor the effects of warfarin therapy, in this case, the presence of bruising and petechiae suggest a need to assess platelet levels specifically. PT and aPTT tests assess the clotting function of factors produced by the liver and are not directly related to platelet count. Vitamin K level may be tested in cases of suspected vitamin K deficiency, but it would not directly help in assessing
Question 8 of 9
A patient reports having adverse effects with nicotinic acid (niacin). The nurse can suggest performing which action to minimize these undesirable effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Taking an aspirin tablet 30 minutes before taking nicotinic acid (niacin) can help minimize the undesirable effects such as flushing, itching, and rash. Aspirin helps to reduce these side effects by blocking the prostaglandin synthesis that mediates the flushing response associated with niacin therapy. This intervention can improve medication adherence and tolerance in patients who experience discomfort with nicotinic acid therapy.
Question 9 of 9
What is the Therapeutic E昀昀ects of Lithium?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is primarily used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder. One of the therapeutic effects of lithium is its ability to prevent or decrease the incidence of acute manic episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. By regulating neurotransmitter levels and affecting intracellular signaling pathways, lithium helps to stabilize mood and prevent the extreme highs of mania. It does not have a direct effect on blood glucose maintenance, control of hyperglycemia, or seizure activity, which are unrelated to its primary mechanism of action in managing mood disorders.