ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the ff instructions should be given to the clients family if a client with impaired swallowing has to take solid medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because crushing or breaking tablets can alter the medication's effectiveness or cause harm. Step 1: Consult a physician or pharmacist ensures safety and effectiveness. Step 2: This step helps in determining if the medication can be safely altered for easier swallowing. Step 3: Using liquid form (B) may not always be an option. Mixing with food (A) can affect absorption. ROM exercises (D) are unrelated to medication administration.
Question 2 of 5
When assessing the external ear, the nurse palpates a small protrusion of the helix called a Darwin tubercle. The nurse would document this finding as which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A normal finding. The Darwin tubercle is a small, painless, bony nodule at the helix of the ear and is considered a normal anatomical variation. It is present in a significant portion of the population, regardless of age. It does not indicate any pathology or abnormality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of a Darwin tubercle is not indicative of any abnormality, and it is not limited to older adults.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following would the nurse teach the patient is the most common site for ear infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Middle ear. This is because the middle ear is the most common site for ear infections due to its anatomy, including the Eustachian tube that can easily become blocked, leading to fluid buildup and infection. The outer ear (A) is less susceptible to infections, while the inner ear (C) and semicircular canal (D) are not typically involved in ear infections, as they are more related to balance and hearing functions rather than infection susceptibility.
Question 4 of 5
Laboratory studies indicate a client’s blood pressure level is 185mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most occlusive diagnostic information about the client’s glucose utilization?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A 6-hour glucose tolerance test. This test involves measuring blood glucose levels at specific intervals after consuming a glucose solution, providing a comprehensive assessment of glucose utilization over time. This test is particularly useful in evaluating how the body processes glucose after a meal and can help diagnose conditions such as diabetes. A: A fasting blood glucose test would not provide a comprehensive picture of glucose utilization over time since it only measures glucose levels in a fasted state. B: A test of serum glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months but does not directly assess glucose utilization after a meal. D: A test for urine ketones is used to detect ketones in the urine, which can indicate diabetic ketoacidosis but does not directly measure glucose utilization.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is instructing a client with newly diagnosed hypoparathyroidism about the regimen used to treat this disorder. The nurse should state that the physician probably will prescribe daily supplements of calcium and:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin D. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines, thus aiding in maintaining normal calcium levels. It is often prescribed along with calcium supplements to support bone health and prevent complications. Folic acid (A) is not directly related to the treatment of hypoparathyroidism. Potassium (B) is not typically prescribed for this condition and can be harmful in high levels. Iron (D) is not directly involved in calcium metabolism and is not part of the standard treatment regimen for hypoparathyroidism.