ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the ff instructions should be given to the clients family if a client with impaired swallowing has to take solid medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because crushing or breaking tablets can alter the medication's effectiveness or cause harm. Step 1: Consult a physician or pharmacist ensures safety and effectiveness. Step 2: This step helps in determining if the medication can be safely altered for easier swallowing. Step 3: Using liquid form (B) may not always be an option. Mixing with food (A) can affect absorption. ROM exercises (D) are unrelated to medication administration.
Question 2 of 9
When can a donor and recipient of blood be considered compatible?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because compatibility between blood donor and recipient is determined by the absence of clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed. Clumping indicates an incompatible blood type reaction, leading to potential harm. Blood clots (option B) are not indicative of compatibility but rather a sign of coagulation issues. Blood color change (option A) and blood drop sinking in water (option D) are not reliable indicators of blood compatibility. In summary, option C is correct as it directly assesses for the absence of a harmful reaction, while the other choices do not accurately determine blood compatibility.
Question 3 of 9
A client metastatic ovarian cancer is prescribed cisplatin (Platinol). Before administering the first dose, the nurse reviews the client’s medication history for drugs that may interact with cisplatin. Which drug may cause significant interactions when given concomitantly with cisplatin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: An aminoglycoside. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin or amikacin, can interact with cisplatin by increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Both cisplatin and aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage, and when used together, the risk of kidney toxicity is significantly increased. This interaction is due to the additive effects on the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function closely and adjust the dosages of these drugs accordingly to prevent severe adverse effects. Summary: A: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is not known to have significant interactions with cisplatin. B: A cephalosporin - Cephalosporins do not typically interact with cisplatin in a clinically significant manner. C: A tetracycline - Tetracyclines are not known to cause significant interactions with
Question 4 of 9
A woman with pelvic inflammatory disease complains of lower abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to administer antibiotics as ordered first because pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by an infection, usually from sexually transmitted organisms. Administering antibiotics promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and treat the underlying infection. This helps to alleviate the source of the pain. Rating pain severity, administering analgesics, and patient education are important but should come after addressing the infection to prevent worsening of the condition.
Question 5 of 9
A client receiving chemotherapy has a nursing diagnosis of Deficient diversional activity related to decreased energy. Which statement indicates an accurate understanding of appropriate ways to deal with this deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because playing card games with friends is a low-energy activity suitable for someone with decreased energy due to chemotherapy. This option promotes social interaction and mental stimulation, addressing the deficient diversional activity. B, bowling with a team, involves physical activity and may be too strenuous for someone with decreased energy. C, taking a long trip, requires significant energy and may not be feasible. D, eating lunch in a restaurant, does not address the need for diversional activity and is not specific to the client's energy limitations.
Question 6 of 9
A staff development nurse is providing an inservice for other nurses to educate them about the Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) system. During the inservice, which statement made by one of the nurses in the room requires the staff development nurse to clarify the information provided? “This system can help medical students determine the cost of the care they provide to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC) system is not designed to help medical students determine the cost of care. The NIC system focuses on standardizing and categorizing nursing interventions to improve communication, documentation, and patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it correctly identifies one of the benefits of using the NIC system - enhancing communication among nurses. Choice C is incorrect because it suggests a valid use of the NIC system for organizing orientation and explaining nursing interventions. Choice D is incorrect because it accurately states that the NIC system can improve documentation in the electronic health record, which is one of its purposes.
Question 7 of 9
A patient exhibits the following symptoms: tachycardia, increased thirst, headache, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. The nurse analyzes the data. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse assign to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume. The patient's symptoms indicate dehydration, as evidenced by tachycardia, increased thirst, decreased urine output, and increased body temperature. This points to a lack of fluid in the body. Option A, adult failure to thrive, does not address the immediate issue of fluid volume. Option B, hypothermia, is incorrect as the patient has an increased body temperature. Option D, nausea, is not a primary issue compared to the symptoms indicating dehydration. Therefore, the correct nursing diagnosis is C: Deficient fluid volume.
Question 8 of 9
Of the following types of nursing diagnoses, which one is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Actual nursing diagnosis. An actual nursing diagnosis is validated by the presence of major defining characteristics, which are signs and symptoms that support the diagnosis. This helps to differentiate it from other types of diagnoses such as risk, possible, or wellness diagnoses. Risk nursing diagnoses predict potential problems, possible nursing diagnoses lack sufficient data for validation, and wellness diagnoses focus on promoting health rather than addressing current health issues. Therefore, only the actual nursing diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of observable defining characteristics.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff points should a nurse include in the teaching plan for clients who have potential for hypovolemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid alcohol and caffeine. Alcohol and caffeine are diuretics that can increase urine output, leading to fluid loss and potential hypovolemia. This step is crucial in preventing further dehydration. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Increasing milk and dairy products can contribute to fluid intake but does not address the prevention of hypovolemia. C: While dried peas and beans can provide nutrients, they do not specifically address fluid intake or prevention of hypovolemia. D: Avoiding table salt or sodium-containing foods may help in reducing fluid retention but does not directly address fluid intake to prevent hypovolemia.