ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following diets would the nurse include in the plan of care for a person with AIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A high-protein, high-calorie diet divided into six small meals. For a person with AIDS, this diet is beneficial to maintain muscle mass, support immune function, and provide energy. High-protein helps in tissue repair, while high-calorie intake helps combat weight loss common in AIDS. Dividing into small frequent meals aids in digestion and absorption. Choice B is incorrect because a low-fat diet may not provide enough calories for the increased energy needs of a person with AIDS. Choice C is incorrect because a high-carbohydrate, fat-restricted diet may not provide sufficient protein for muscle maintenance. Choice D is incorrect because a high-fat diet may lead to weight gain and can be harder to digest for someone with compromised immunity.
Question 2 of 5
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Paraplegia is a condition where both lower extremities are paralyzed. 2. The prefix "para-" means alongside or beside, indicating that both legs are affected. 3. The nurse would explain to the family that Mr. Gubatan has paralysis in his lower extremities only. 4. This aligns with the medical definition of paraplegia. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Upper extremities being paralyzed is not indicative of paraplegia, as paraplegia specifically refers to lower extremity paralysis. B. Both lower and upper extremities being paralyzed is suggestive of quadriplegia, not paraplegia. D. One side of the body being paralyzed describes hemiplegia, not paraplegia.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse, in assessing the adequacy of a client's fluid replacement during the first 2 to 3 days following full- thickness burns to the trunk and right thigh, would be aware that the most significant data would be obtained from recording
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary output every hour. This is because assessing urinary output is crucial for monitoring fluid balance in burn patients. Adequate urine output indicates proper fluid replacement, while decreased output may indicate dehydration. Recording weights daily (choice A) may be important but not as immediate and specific as urinary output. Blood pressure every 15 minutes (choice B) is too frequent and not directly related to fluid replacement in this context. Monitoring peripheral edema every 4 hours (choice D) is not as reliable as urinary output for assessing fluid status.
Question 4 of 5
A home care nurse is assessing a client who is taking prazosin (Minipress). Which statement by the client would support the nursing diagnosis of noncompliance with medication therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the correct answer - C: “I feel dizzy, I’ll skip my dose for a few days.” Step 2: Explanation - This statement indicates that the client is experiencing a known side effect of prazosin (dizziness) and plans to stop the medication temporarily without consulting the healthcare provider, showing noncompliance. Step 3: Supporting details - Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment and potential health risks. Step 4: Comparison with other choices: A: This statement shows the client questioning the need for medication but does not indicate current noncompliance. B: This statement demonstrates difficulty reading labels but does not directly relate to medication compliance. D: This statement shows awareness about medication interactions but does not indicate noncompliance with the prescribed medication regimen. Summary: Choice C is correct as it directly reflects noncompliance by planning to skip doses without consulting the healthcare provider, leading to potential adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate the
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to conduct a health history for a client who is confined to bed. How should the nurse position herself?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sitting at a 45-degree angle to the bed. This position allows the nurse to have a clear view of the client and maintain good communication. Sitting at a 45-degree angle enables the nurse to observe the client's facial expressions, body language, and interact effectively. Standing at the end of the bed (A) limits the nurse's view and communication. Standing at the side of the bed (B) may obstruct the nurse-client interaction. Sitting at least six feet away (C) creates unnecessary distance and hinders effective communication.
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