ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
When assessing the external ear, the nurse palpates a small protrusion of the helix called a Darwin tubercle. The nurse would document this finding as which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A normal finding. The Darwin tubercle is a small, painless, bony nodule at the helix of the ear and is considered a normal anatomical variation. It is present in a significant portion of the population, regardless of age. It does not indicate any pathology or abnormality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of a Darwin tubercle is not indicative of any abnormality, and it is not limited to older adults.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse teach the patient is the most common site for ear infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Middle ear. This is because the middle ear is the most common site for ear infections due to its anatomy, including the Eustachian tube that can easily become blocked, leading to fluid buildup and infection. The outer ear (A) is less susceptible to infections, while the inner ear (C) and semicircular canal (D) are not typically involved in ear infections, as they are more related to balance and hearing functions rather than infection susceptibility.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following types of care plans is most likely to enable the nurse to take a holistic view of the client’s situation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Concept map care plan. This type of care plan allows the nurse to visually represent the client's entire situation, including physical, emotional, and social aspects. By using interconnected concepts and relationships, the nurse can see the whole picture and identify potential interventions. Kardex (A) is a concise patient information summary, not comprehensive. Case management (B) focuses on coordinating services but may not capture the holistic view. Critical pathways (C) outline specific steps in care but may not address the client as a whole.
Question 4 of 9
What discharge teaching is most important to help the patient who has had a splenectomy prevent infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Receive vaccines against infection. Following a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection due to the absence of the spleen's immune function. Vaccines help boost the body's immunity against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infections. This is crucial for preventing post-splenectomy infections. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Avoid showering for 1 week - There is no evidence to support that avoiding showering would prevent infection after a splenectomy. B: Sleep in a semi-fowler’s position - Positioning does not directly impact infection prevention post-splenectomy. D: Stay on antibiotics for life - Long-term antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not recommended unless specifically indicated for a different reason.
Question 5 of 9
A 46 y.o. woman is admitted to the rehabilitation unit with left-sided hemiparesis resulting from a subarachnoid hemorrhage. She is not oriented to her surroundings or situation, but she does recognize her family. On admission, she tells her nurse that she can walk to the bathroom without assistance. Which of the ff. responses by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask her to demonstrate her ability to ambulate. This response is best because it allows the nurse to assess the patient's actual ability to walk safely to the bathroom. By observing her, the nurse can ensure her safety and prevent potential falls. This approach also respects the patient's autonomy while prioritizing her safety. Incorrect responses: A: Allowing her to ambulate unassisted solely for positive self-esteem overlooks the importance of assessing her actual capability and ensuring safety. C: Explaining that assistance will always be available may not address the immediate need for assessment and safety. D: Asking another staff member to assist without assessing the patient's ability herself does not allow the nurse to directly evaluate the patient's safety and independence.
Question 6 of 9
For a client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: providing for frequent rest periods. This intervention is essential for a client with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia to prevent further platelet depletion and reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Rest periods help conserve energy and minimize physical exertion, which can trigger bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Rationale: 1. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in thrombocytopenia as it can further decrease platelet count and increase the risk of bleeding. 2. Inspecting the skin for petechiae (choice B) is important but not as crucial as providing rest periods in managing thrombocytopenia. 3. Placing the client in strict isolation (choice D) is not necessary for radiation-induced thrombocytopenia unless there are other specific infectious concerns. In summary, providing frequent rest periods is the most appropriate intervention to manage radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, promoting patient
Question 7 of 9
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Paraplegia is a condition where both lower extremities are paralyzed. 2. The prefix "para-" means alongside or beside, indicating that both legs are affected. 3. The nurse would explain to the family that Mr. Gubatan has paralysis in his lower extremities only. 4. This aligns with the medical definition of paraplegia. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Upper extremities being paralyzed is not indicative of paraplegia, as paraplegia specifically refers to lower extremity paralysis. B. Both lower and upper extremities being paralyzed is suggestive of quadriplegia, not paraplegia. D. One side of the body being paralyzed describes hemiplegia, not paraplegia.
Question 8 of 9
Which action will the nurse take after the plan of care for a patient is developed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after developing a plan of care, the nurse must communicate it to all healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care to ensure everyone is aware of the plan and can collaborate effectively. This promotes continuity of care and prevents errors. Choice A is incorrect because the plan of care should not be placed in the chart to avoid tampering; it should be easily accessible for updates. Choice C is incorrect as filing in the administration office is unnecessary for routine care. Choice D is incorrect as sending the plan to quality assurance is not the immediate next step after developing the plan.
Question 9 of 9
Patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome should be closely monitored. Which of the ff. parameters is most important to be checked regularly for acute complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ABG. Monitoring ABG in Guillain-Barre Syndrome patients is crucial as they are at risk for respiratory complications like respiratory failure due to muscle weakness. ABG provides information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. Regular monitoring helps detect early signs of respiratory distress and guide appropriate interventions. A: BUN and creatinine are important for assessing renal function, but they do not directly relate to acute complications in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. B: Hgb and Hct are markers for anemia, which is not a common acute complication in Guillain-Barre Syndrome. D: Serum potassium levels are important, but ABG monitoring takes precedence in patients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to the risk of respiratory issues.