When assessing the external ear, the nurse palpates a small protrusion of the helix called a Darwin tubercle. The nurse would document this finding as which of the following?

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Question 1 of 9

When assessing the external ear, the nurse palpates a small protrusion of the helix called a Darwin tubercle. The nurse would document this finding as which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A normal finding. The Darwin tubercle is a small, painless, bony nodule at the helix of the ear and is considered a normal anatomical variation. It is present in a significant portion of the population, regardless of age. It does not indicate any pathology or abnormality. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of a Darwin tubercle is not indicative of any abnormality, and it is not limited to older adults.

Question 2 of 9

Usually, how does the patient behave after his seizure has subsided?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sleeps for a period of time. After a seizure, the brain and body experience fatigue and exhaustion. It is common for the patient to feel drowsy and require rest to recover. This post-ictal state is characterized by sleepiness and confusion. The other choices are incorrect because typically, after a seizure, the patient is not most comfortable walking and moving about (A), does not become restless and agitated (C), and may not immediately express thirst and hunger (D). It is important to ensure the patient is in a safe environment and allow them to rest after a seizure episode.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following types of care plans is most likely to enable the nurse to take a holistic view of the client’s situation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Concept map care plan. This type of care plan allows the nurse to visually represent the client's entire situation, including physical, emotional, and social aspects. By using interconnected concepts and relationships, the nurse can see the whole picture and identify potential interventions. Kardex (A) is a concise patient information summary, not comprehensive. Case management (B) focuses on coordinating services but may not capture the holistic view. Critical pathways (C) outline specific steps in care but may not address the client as a whole.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the ff should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client with acute bronchitis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Washing the hands frequently. This is important for preventing the spread of infection, which is crucial in acute bronchitis. By washing hands frequently, the client can reduce the risk of transmitting the infection to others and prevent reinfection. A: Not coughing frequently - While managing cough is important, it is not the most crucial aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis. C: Consuming adequate calories - While nutrition is important for overall health, it is not specifically related to the management of acute bronchitis. D: Encouraging a semi-Fowler’s position - While this position can help with breathing, it is not the most important aspect in the teaching plan for acute bronchitis.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse understands that for the parathyroid hormone to exert its effect, what must be present?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased calcium level. Parathyroid hormone functions to increase blood calcium levels. When calcium levels are low, the parathyroid gland releases PTH to stimulate the release of calcium from bones and increase calcium absorption from the intestines and kidneys. This helps to maintain normal calcium levels in the blood. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because decreased phosphate level, functioning thyroid gland, and adequate vitamin D level are not direct requirements for the action of parathyroid hormone.

Question 6 of 9

The physician orders propranolol (Inderal) for a client's angina. The effect of this drug is to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Block beta stimulation in the heart. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-1 and beta-2 receptors in the heart. By doing so, it reduces the heart rate, decreases the force of contraction, and lowers blood pressure, which helps in managing angina. Option A is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasoconstrictor. Option C is incorrect because propranolol does not act as a vasodilator. Option D is incorrect because propranolol decreases the heart rate rather than increasing it.

Question 7 of 9

Seven girls were victims of food poisoning after eating the sandwiches served at snack time. Which of the following statement are true regarding food poisoning?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Symptoms of food poisoning typically include salivation, cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, so statement A is correct. Step 2: Food left unrefrigerated can lead to bacterial growth, making it more dangerous, so statement B is accurate. Step 3: Cooking can kill harmful organisms and stop the production of toxins, supporting statement C. Step 4: All three statements are true and collectively provide a comprehensive understanding of food poisoning, making option D the correct answer.

Question 8 of 9

A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, the nurse should assign highest priority to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintaining a patent airway. This is the highest priority because the client with esophageal cancer is at risk for airway obstruction due to difficulty swallowing. Maintaining a patent airway ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation, which are vital for the client's survival. Without a clear airway, the client may experience respiratory distress or failure. Body image, preventing injury, and ensuring adequate nutrition are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over maintaining a patent airway in this situation.

Question 9 of 9

Which immunoglobulin is specific to an allergic response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgE. IgE is specific to allergic responses as it binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. IgA is more involved in mucosal immunity, IgG is involved in long-term immunity and opsonization, and IgM is the primary antibody in the primary immune response. IgB is not a known immunoglobulin. Therefore, IgE is the specific immunoglobulin associated with allergic responses due to its role in mediating hypersensitivity reactions.

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