The nurse evaluates that furosemide IV is effective in treating pulmonary edema if which of the following patient signs or symptoms is resolved?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink, frothy sputum. This is because pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. Furosemide IV is a diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, including the lungs. Resolving pink, frothy sputum indicates that the treatment is effectively reducing the fluid in the lungs. Incorrect choices: A: Pedal edema - This refers to swelling in the feet and ankles, which is not directly related to pulmonary edema. C: Jugular vein distention - This is a sign of heart failure, not specifically pulmonary edema. D: Bradycardia - This is a slow heart rate and not a direct indicator of pulmonary edema resolution.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the patient's pain level is the priority when caring for a patient with a brain tumor about to begin radiation treatments. Pain management is crucial in providing comfort and ensuring the patient's well-being during treatment. Teaching the patient about what to expect and addressing any pain promptly are essential steps in delivering effective care. Padding the side rails (choice A) is important for patient safety, but it is not the priority in this situation. Isolating the patient (choice D) is unnecessary unless there is a specific medical indication. Teaching the patient what to expect (choice B) is important but assessing and managing pain take precedence to ensure the patient's comfort and safety during treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures. Step 2: Anticonvulsants are often given before surgery to reduce the risk of seizures during and after the procedure. Step 3: In the context of intracranial surgery, controlling seizures is crucial to prevent complications like increased intracranial pressure. Step 4: Therefore, administering phenytoin before surgery helps in reducing the risk of seizures before and after the procedure. Summary: - Option B (avoid intraoperative complications) is too broad and doesn't directly relate to the use of phenytoin. - Option C (reduce cerebral edema) is not the primary indication for phenytoin in this scenario. - Option D (prevent postoperative vomiting) is not a common reason for administering phenytoin before intracranial surgery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because wearing gloves during all client contact is a key practice in standard precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Gloves act as a barrier to protect both the healthcare worker and the patient from potential pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as cleaning blood spills with soap and water is not sufficient for infection control. Choice C is incorrect because pouring bulk blood and secretions down a drain is a violation of biohazard disposal protocols. Choice D is incorrect as carrying a blood sample in an open basket can lead to potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s breathing will become easier. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps to reverse the severe respiratory symptoms. By administering epinephrine, it causes bronchodilation, which helps improve breathing by opening up the airways. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because epinephrine typically causes an increase in blood pressure due to its vasoconstrictive effects. C is incorrect because angioedema is a potential side effect of anaphylaxis and would not be expected to increase after epinephrine administration. D is incorrect because epinephrine helps to improve alertness and consciousness by increasing blood flow to the brain.