ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse evaluates that furosemide IV is effective in treating pulmonary edema if which of the following patient signs or symptoms is resolved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink, frothy sputum. This is because pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. Furosemide IV is a diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body, including the lungs. Resolving pink, frothy sputum indicates that the treatment is effectively reducing the fluid in the lungs. Incorrect choices: A: Pedal edema - This refers to swelling in the feet and ankles, which is not directly related to pulmonary edema. C: Jugular vein distention - This is a sign of heart failure, not specifically pulmonary edema. D: Bradycardia - This is a slow heart rate and not a direct indicator of pulmonary edema resolution.
Question 2 of 9
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is a more reliable indicator compared to other options. A: Urine glucose level only shows current glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of long-term control. B: Serum fructosamine level reflects blood glucose control over the past 2-3 weeks, not the 3-month period the client has been making efforts. C: Fasting blood glucose level gives a snapshot of the current glucose level, not long-term control like glycosylated hemoglobin does.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following outcomes is correctly written?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it clearly states a measurable outcome by specifying that the client will be able to list five symptoms of infection. This outcome is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART). Choice A lacks specificity and measurability. Choice B is vague and does not provide a quantifiable measure of success. Choice D does not specify who will be observing the symptoms or how they will be documented. Overall, choice C stands out as the most appropriate outcome as it is clear, achievable, and directly related to assessing the client's understanding of infection symptoms.
Question 4 of 9
After the surgical incision has been clised and the anesthesia has wear-off, the patient is extubated and transferred to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). Who is responsible for transferring the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anesthesiologist. The anesthesiologist is responsible for transferring the patient to the PACU as they are in charge of the patient's anesthesia management throughout the surgery. They are trained to assess the patient's condition post-surgery, manage any immediate postoperative complications, and ensure a smooth transition to the PACU staff for continued care. The circulating nurse (A) is responsible for managing the operating room environment, the scrub nurse (B) assists the surgeon during the surgery by passing instruments, and the surgeon (C) performs the surgical procedure but does not typically transfer the patient to the PACU.
Question 5 of 9
At a public health fair, the nurse teaches a group of women about breast cancer awareness. Possible signs of breast cancer include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nipple discharge and a breast nodule are classic signs of breast cancer. Nipple discharge can be bloody or clear, and a breast nodule is a lump that feels different from the surrounding tissue. Fever (choice A) is not a common sign of breast cancer. Breast changes during menstruation (choice C) are normal hormonal fluctuations. Fever and erythema of the breast (choice D) are more indicative of an infection rather than breast cancer. Therefore, choice B is the most relevant sign of breast cancer among the options provided.
Question 6 of 9
A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect, especially at higher doses. This is a known adverse reaction to Ketamine administration. Monitoring for muscle rigidity and spasms is important to ensure the safety of the client during and after surgery. Incorrect choices: B: Hiccups - Hiccups are not a common side effect of Ketamine administration. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine is not known to cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine typically does not cause respiratory depression, which is more commonly associated with other anesthetics like opioids. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the known side effects of Ketamine.
Question 7 of 9
A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is admitted with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. During a bath, the client begins to cry and says that most friends and relatives have stopped visiting and calling. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Listen and show interest as the client expresses feelings. It is essential for the nurse to actively listen and show empathy towards the client's emotional distress. This approach demonstrates compassion, understanding, and support for the client during a vulnerable moment, which is crucial for the therapeutic relationship. By actively listening, the nurse can validate the client's emotions and provide a safe space for them to express their feelings. This can help the client feel heard and supported, leading to improved emotional well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Continuing with the bath and telling the client not to worry dismisses the client's emotions and fails to address their underlying feelings of loneliness and isolation. B: Asking for a psychiatric consultation may not be necessary at this point, as the client's emotional distress can be effectively managed through therapeutic communication. D: Stating that the friends' behavior shows they aren't true friends is judgmental and unhelpful, as it does not address
Question 8 of 9
A client has an external fixation device on his leg due to a compound fracture. The client says that the device and swelling make his leg look ugly. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in his care plan based on the client’s concern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disturbed body image. The client's concern about the external fixation device making his leg look ugly indicates a disturbance in his perception of his own body image. This diagnosis focuses on the client's feelings and emotions related to his appearance, which can impact his self-esteem and psychological well-being. Rationale: 1. Impaired physical mobility (A) is not the most appropriate diagnosis in this scenario as the client's concern is related to the appearance of his leg, not his ability to move. 2. Risk for infection (C) is not the best choice because the client's concern is not directly related to the risk of infection but rather to the aesthetic aspect of his leg. 3. Risk for social isolation (D) is not the most suitable diagnosis as the client's concern is more about his own perception of his appearance rather than the potential impact on his social interactions.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when assisting a patient who has the nursing diagnosis ofAltered Thought Process with Persona! Hygiene Needs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it offers the patient autonomy by providing a choice between brushing their teeth independently or having assistance. This empowers the patient to make decisions regarding their personal hygiene, promoting independence and self-esteem. Choice A does not offer a choice or empower the patient. Choice B focuses solely on the location of the toothbrush and does not address the patient's needs. Choice C does not provide the patient with a sense of control over their hygiene routine. By contrast, choice D acknowledges the patient's needs, offers a choice, and encourages independence.