Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension) because hypotension is not a specific indication for intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring according to the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines. The rationale is that hypotension is a systemic issue affecting overall perfusion, whereas ICP monitoring is specifically for assessing intracranial dynamics. A, C, and D are incorrect choices because they all involve conditions that could potentially indicate increased intracranial pressure and the need for monitoring. A) Abnormal head CT indicates structural brain injury, C) age > 40 is a risk factor for poor outcomes after traumatic brain injury, and D) bradycardia can be a sign of increased ICP affecting brainstem function. Therefore, these conditions warrant ICP monitoring according to guidelines.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because congenital abnormalities and chorioangioma can lead to increased amniotic fluid accumulation, causing polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities can affect fetal swallowing and urine production, leading to fluid buildup. Chorioangioma is a vascular tumor in the placenta that can disrupt normal fluid dynamics. Choice B is incorrect as severe fetal hypoxia and multiple pregnancy are more likely to cause oligohydramnios, not polyhydramnios. Choice C is incorrect as uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and anemia are associated with macrosomia and not polyhydramnios. Choice D is incorrect because Rhesus D isoimmunisation and postdatism are not typically linked to polyhydramnios.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rheumatic heart disease. This is because rheumatic heart disease is a known risk factor for cardiac complications during pregnancy due to the strain pregnancy places on the heart. Choice B, notable peripheral edema, is a symptom of heart failure but not a predisposing factor. Choice C, easy fatiguability, is a non-specific symptom and not a direct predisposing factor. Choice D, basal crepitation, is a sign of possible lung pathology and not directly related to cardiac disease in pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to an increased risk of cardiac issues during pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because secondary post-partum hemorrhage can occur up to 6 weeks (46 days) after delivery, typically due to delayed complications like retained placental fragments or infection. Choice A is incorrect because most secondary post-partum hemorrhage occurs after the first week. Choice B is incorrect as it describes primary post-partum hemorrhage, which occurs within 24 hours of delivery. Choice D is incorrect since lochia serosa is a normal discharge present in the early post-partum period and is not specific to diagnosing secondary post-partum hemorrhage.