Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that

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Midwifery Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because inflammatory polyps are indeed considered precancerous, meaning they have the potential to develop into cancer over time. By having regular colonoscopies every 3 to 5 years, any new polyps can be detected early and removed before they have a chance to become malignant. This approach helps in preventing the progression of polyps to cancerous lesions, thus reducing the risk of developing colon cancer. Choice B is incorrect because while family history is a risk factor for colon cancer, the presence of inflammatory polyps in Mr. Costigan should not be overlooked or solely attributed to family history. Choice C is incorrect because all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, including inflammatory polyps. Ignoring their presence can lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect because at this stage, the primary focus should be on surveillance and prevention through regular colonoscopies, rather than jumping into discussions about aggressive treatment options.

Question 2 of 9

When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Compound. When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part during childbirth, it is called a compound presentation. This can be a complication as it increases the risk of the presenting part not fitting through the birth canal properly. A: Footling presentation occurs when the baby's foot or feet are the first to emerge from the birth canal. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways in the uterus. D: Cephalic presentation is the ideal position for vaginal delivery, with the baby's head down and ready to be born.

Question 3 of 9

Specific management for incomplete uterine rupture:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immediate cesarean is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Monitoring for signs of shock is essential to detect any deterioration in the mother's condition. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the mother's hemodynamic status. Option B is incorrect as observation alone may delay necessary interventions. Option C is partially correct as immediate cesarean is necessary but does not address monitoring for shock and fluid resuscitation. Option D is incorrect as continuous monitoring alone is insufficient to manage incomplete uterine rupture.

Question 4 of 9

Prenatally, malaria parasites hide at the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Placental bed. Malaria parasites hide in the placental bed during pregnancy to avoid detection by the immune system. This location provides a safe haven for the parasites to survive and replicate without being cleared by the mother's immune response. The placental bed offers a rich blood supply and a favorable environment for the parasites to thrive. Incorrect choices: A: Bone marrow - Malaria parasites do not typically hide in the bone marrow during pregnancy. C: Fetal circulation - Malaria parasites do not hide in the fetal circulation; they primarily reside in the placental bed. D: Uterine muscle - Malaria parasites do not hide in the uterine muscle; the placental bed is the main site of sequestration during pregnancy.

Question 5 of 9

Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ordering hepatic ultrasound annually to follow progression is the appropriate response for hepatic hemangiomas. Biopsy is not recommended due to the risk of bleeding. Surgery is usually not required unless there are complications. Documenting the finding is important but does not address the need for monitoring. Ultrasound allows for non-invasive monitoring of the hemangiomas over time to assess for growth or complications, guiding further management if needed.

Question 6 of 9

The MOST immediate action to take for a client in active labor at 32 weeks with a cord prolapse is to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in knee-chest position. This helps relieve pressure on the cord and prevents further compression, ensuring adequate blood flow to the fetus. Pushing the cord back in (A) can worsen the situation. Covering the cord (B) does not address the urgent need to relieve pressure. Immediate vaginal delivery (D) may not be possible or safe at 32 weeks. Placing the client in the knee-chest position is the most immediate and effective action to manage cord prolapse.

Question 7 of 9

How does maternal obesity affect pregnancy outcomes?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increases risk of gestational diabetes. Maternal obesity can lead to insulin resistance, increasing the likelihood of developing gestational diabetes during pregnancy. This condition can have negative effects on both the mother and the baby. B: Miscarriage is not directly linked to maternal obesity but can be influenced by other factors. C: Maternal obesity is not a direct cause of anemia during pregnancy. Anemia is usually related to iron deficiency or other factors. D: Maternal obesity is actually associated with an increased risk of preterm labor, not a reduced chance. This is due to various complications such as hypertension and preeclampsia.

Question 8 of 9

A major predisposing factor to cardiac disease in pregnancy includes

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rheumatic heart disease. This is because rheumatic heart disease is a known risk factor for cardiac complications during pregnancy due to the strain pregnancy places on the heart. Choice B, notable peripheral edema, is a symptom of heart failure but not a predisposing factor. Choice C, easy fatiguability, is a non-specific symptom and not a direct predisposing factor. Choice D, basal crepitation, is a sign of possible lung pathology and not directly related to cardiac disease in pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it directly relates to an increased risk of cardiac issues during pregnancy.

Question 9 of 9

How can maternal obesity be managed during pregnancy to improve outcomes?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. Regular exercise helps control weight gain and improves maternal health. A balanced diet provides essential nutrients for both mother and baby. Monitoring weight gain ensures healthy weight management. Combining all three strategies optimizes outcomes by reducing risks associated with maternal obesity, such as gestational diabetes and hypertension. Each option plays a crucial role in managing maternal obesity during pregnancy for better overall health and well-being.

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