ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a complication of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mallory-Weiss syndrome is caused by severe vomiting leading to tears in the esophagus. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, which can result in Mallory-Weiss syndrome. Placenta praevia, cardiac disease, and postpartum hemorrhage are not directly associated with Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
Question 2 of 5
A characteristic of monozygotic twins includes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Always of the same sex. Monozygotic twins develop from a single fertilized egg, so they have the same genetic material, making them always the same sex. This is due to the fact that the sex of an individual is determined by the chromosomes inherited from the parents. This is a fundamental principle of genetics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monozygotic twins can have different fingerprints, blood groups, and superfetation (conception that occurs during an existing pregnancy) is not common in monozygotic twins.
Question 3 of 5
A student AGACNP just beginning his clinical rotation is observing his preceptor perform a physical survey on a patient who is brought in following a serious motor vehicle accident. The student observes that the physical examination includes rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of the pelvic landmarks. The student knows the patient is being assessed for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retroperitoneal bleeding. The physical survey described focuses on assessing for internal bleeding within the retroperitoneal space following a serious motor vehicle accident. The rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks help evaluate for signs of pelvic fracture and internal bleeding. These assessments help identify potential sources of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can be a life-threatening complication of trauma. Peritoneal bleeding (choice A) involves bleeding within the abdominal cavity, which is less likely in this scenario. Paresthesia (choice C) refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, which are not typically assessed through physical examination in this context. Pelvic fracture (choice D) is a possible outcome of trauma but does not directly assess for retroperitoneal bleeding.
Question 4 of 5
When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound. In compound presentation, a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part, usually the head. This can complicate the delivery process. A: Footling presentation means the foot presents first. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways. C: Cephalic presentation is normal, with the head presenting first. In this scenario, D is the correct answer as it specifically describes the situation where a hand or foot is alongside the presenting part.
Question 5 of 5
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.
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