Positive fasting blood sugar and oral glucose tolerance test, as well as being symptomatic, is diagnostic of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Gestational diabetes mellitus. This condition is diagnosed when a pregnant woman exhibits symptoms of diabetes and has elevated fasting blood sugar and abnormal oral glucose tolerance test results. This specific combination of symptoms and test results during pregnancy points towards gestational diabetes mellitus. A: Potential diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. The symptoms combined with abnormal test results suggest an active condition, not potential. C: Clinical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. While the symptoms and test results indicate diabetes, the context of pregnancy suggests gestational diabetes. D: Chemical diabetes mellitus - Incorrect. This term is not commonly used in medical practice and does not specifically address the condition in the given scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, All of the above. Regular exercise helps control weight gain and improves maternal health. A balanced diet provides essential nutrients for both mother and baby. Monitoring weight gain ensures healthy weight management. Combining all three strategies optimizes outcomes by reducing risks associated with maternal obesity, such as gestational diabetes and hypertension. Each option plays a crucial role in managing maternal obesity during pregnancy for better overall health and well-being.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Compound. When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part during childbirth, it is called a compound presentation. This can be a complication as it increases the risk of the presenting part not fitting through the birth canal properly. A: Footling presentation occurs when the baby's foot or feet are the first to emerge from the birth canal. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways in the uterus. D: Cephalic presentation is the ideal position for vaginal delivery, with the baby's head down and ready to be born.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the management of hypothermia neonatorum, the gradual rewarming process is aimed at preventing shock. Rapid rewarming can lead to vasodilation, causing a sudden drop in blood pressure and potentially leading to shock. Gradual rewarming helps the body adjust slowly to prevent this. Providing energy (Choice A) is not the primary goal of rewarming in hypothermia. Providing comfort (Choice C) is important but not the main purpose of the rewarming process. Preventing burns (Choice D) is not directly related to the rewarming process but is important to ensure the safety of the neonate during the rewarming process.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presence of a turtle sign during delivery is indicative of shoulder dystocia. This occurs when the baby's shoulders get stuck behind the mother's pelvic bones during delivery, leading to difficulty in delivering the baby's shoulders. The turtle sign refers to the retraction of the baby's head back into the birth canal after delivery of the head, resembling a turtle retracting into its shell. This sign is a clear indicator of shoulder dystocia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because prolonged labor, occipito-posterior position, and shoulder presentation do not specifically involve the retraction of the baby's head like in shoulder dystocia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (3000 ml) because polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid, typically exceeding 2000-2500 ml. A level of 3000 ml is commonly used as a cutoff point for clinical diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall below the threshold typically considered diagnostic for polyhydramnios. Answer A (1500 ml) is too low, while choices C (1900 ml) and D (2500 ml) are below or at the lower end of the range typically associated with polyhydramnios. Therefore, the most appropriate threshold for diagnosing polyhydramnios is when the amount of amniotic fluid exceeds 3000 ml.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retroperitoneal bleeding. The physical survey described focuses on assessing for internal bleeding within the retroperitoneal space following a serious motor vehicle accident. The rectovaginal examination, inspection of the urethral meatus, and palpation of pelvic landmarks help evaluate for signs of pelvic fracture and internal bleeding. These assessments help identify potential sources of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can be a life-threatening complication of trauma. Peritoneal bleeding (choice A) involves bleeding within the abdominal cavity, which is less likely in this scenario. Paresthesia (choice C) refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, which are not typically assessed through physical examination in this context. Pelvic fracture (choice D) is a possible outcome of trauma but does not directly assess for retroperitoneal bleeding.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moderate anaemia. Haematinics, dietary advice, and close surveillance are appropriate management plans for moderate anaemia to improve iron levels and overall health. For mild anaemia, dietary changes alone may be sufficient. Severe anaemia often requires more aggressive treatments like blood transfusions. Anaemia prevention focuses on strategies to avoid developing anaemia rather than managing an existing case.