ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has sought care, stating that she developed hives overnight. The nurses inspection confirms the presence of urticaria. What type of allergic hypersensitivity reaction has the patient developed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like hives. It is characterized by the involvement of IgE antibodies. In this case, the patient developed hives quickly after exposure to the allergen, indicating an immediate hypersensitivity reaction typical of Type I. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms and timeframes of hypersensitivity reactions. Type II involves antibody-mediated cell destruction, Type III involves immune complex deposition, and Type IV is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, none of which are consistent with the rapid onset of hives seen in this patient.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery for a tumor within the spine. The patient complains of pain. When positioning the patient for comfort and to reduce injury to the surgical site, the nurse will position to patient in what position?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In a flat side-lying position. Rationale: 1. A flat side-lying position helps reduce pressure on the surgical site, promoting comfort and preventing injury. 2. This position minimizes strain on the spine and supports proper alignment. 3. High Fowlers position may increase pressure on the surgical area due to increased intra-abdominal pressure. 4. Trendelenberg position and reverse Trendelenberg position are not appropriate for spine surgery patients as they can cause increased blood flow to the surgical site, leading to potential complications.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse leading an educational session is describing self-examination of the breast. The nurse tells the womens group to raise their arms and inspect their breasts in a mirror. A member of the womens group asks the nurse why raising her arms is necessary. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It helps to spread out the fat that makes up your breast. Raising the arms during breast self-examination stretches the breast tissue, making it easier to detect any lumps or abnormalities. This action also helps to distribute the breast tissue evenly, providing a clearer view of the entire breast. This method ensures a more thorough examination and increases the chances of detecting any changes in the breast tissue early on. Summary of incorrect choices: B: It allows you to simultaneously assess for pain - Although assessing for pain is important, raising the arms specifically helps with spreading out the breast tissue, not necessarily for assessing pain. C: It will help to observe for dimpling more closely - While observing for dimpling is important, raising the arms is primarily for spreading out the breast tissue, not for observing dimpling. D: This is what the American Cancer Society recommends - While recommendations from reputable sources are important, the rationale behind raising the arms during breast self-examination is not solely
Question 5 of 9
Massage around the feces and work down to remove.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the massage is to start around the feces (4), then work downwards (1), followed by moving towards the sides (5), then back to the top (2), continuing to the sides again (3), and finally finishing at the top (6). This sequence ensures a thorough and effective massage process. Other choices have different orders that do not follow the logical flow of massaging around the feces and working down as specified in the question.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a nutrition class about the different daily values. When teaching about the referenced daily intakes (RDIs), which information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because referenced daily intakes (RDIs) provide values for protein, vitamins, and minerals essential for maintaining health. RDIs do not focus solely on fat, cholesterol, and fiber percentages (B). RDIs are different from recommended daily allowances (RDAs) but do not replace them (C). RDIs are not specifically used to develop diets for chronic illnesses requiring a specific calorie intake (D).
Question 7 of 9
On otoscopy, a red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is suggestive of what diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholesteatoma. A red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is indicative of a cholesteatoma, which is a noncancerous cyst in the middle ear. This occurs due to the accumulation of skin cells and debris in the middle ear space. Other choices (A, C, D) are not associated with a red blemish on otoscopy. An acoustic tumor (A) typically presents as a slow-growing mass on the vestibulocochlear nerve. Facial nerve neuroma (C) involves the facial nerve and does not typically cause a red blemish. Glomus tympanicum (D) is a vascular tumor arising from the middle ear but does not usually present as a red blemish.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches and vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patients vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake. In the context of a brain tumor, vomiting that is not related to food intake can indicate increased intracranial pressure affecting the brain's vomiting center. This is known as projectile vomiting. A: Vomiting accompanied by epistaxis (nosebleeds) is more indicative of other conditions like hypertension or nasal issues, not necessarily specific to a brain tumor. B: Vomiting not relieving nausea can be seen in various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal system, not specifically brain tumors. D: Blood-tinged emesis can suggest gastrointestinal bleeding or other issues, but it's not a specific characteristic of vomiting associated with brain tumors.
Question 9 of 9
A public health nurse is preparing an educational campaign to address a recent local increase in the incidence of HIV infection. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Educational programs that focus on control and prevention. This intervention is the most crucial as it directly addresses the issue of the increasing incidence of HIV infection. By providing education on how to control and prevent the spread of HIV, the nurse can empower the community to take proactive measures to reduce transmission rates. A: Lifestyle actions that improve immune function may be helpful in general health promotion but do not directly target the prevention of HIV transmission. C: Appropriate use of standard precautions is important but is more focused on healthcare settings rather than community-wide prevention efforts. D: Screening programs for youth and young adults are valuable but may not be as effective as educational programs in preventing the spread of HIV.