ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient has just started on enteral feedings, and the patient is reporting abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse takenext?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: Abdominal cramping in a patient on enteral feedings could indicate feeding intolerance. The nurse's initial action should be to slow down the rate of the tube feeding to allow the patient's gastrointestinal tract to adjust gradually. This helps reduce the risk of further complications and allows for better tolerance. Slowing the rate is a safe and effective intervention that can help alleviate the abdominal cramping without causing additional stress on the patient's digestive system. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Instilling cold formula is not a recommended practice and can potentially cause harm or discomfort to the patient. C: Changing to a high-fat formula may exacerbate the abdominal cramping as it can be harder to digest for some patients. D: Consulting with the healthcare provider about prokinetic medication should come after trying less invasive interventions such as slowing the rate of tube feeding.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery for a tumor within the spine. The patient complains of pain. When positioning the patient for comfort and to reduce injury to the surgical site, the nurse will position to patient in what position?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In a flat side-lying position. Rationale: 1. A flat side-lying position helps reduce pressure on the surgical site, promoting comfort and preventing injury. 2. This position minimizes strain on the spine and supports proper alignment. 3. High Fowlers position may increase pressure on the surgical area due to increased intra-abdominal pressure. 4. Trendelenberg position and reverse Trendelenberg position are not appropriate for spine surgery patients as they can cause increased blood flow to the surgical site, leading to potential complications.
Question 3 of 5
While reviewing the health history of an older adult experiencing hearing loss the nurse notes the patient has had no trauma or loss of balance. What aspect of this patients health history is most likely to be linked to the patients hearing deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Previous perforation of the eardrum. A perforated eardrum can lead to hearing loss as it affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. This is the most likely link to the patient's hearing deficit as trauma or injury to the eardrum can directly impact hearing. Incorrect choices: A: Recent completion of radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer - Radiation therapy for thyroid cancer typically does not directly affect hearing. B: Routine use of quinine for management of leg cramps - Quinine use is associated with tinnitus (ringing in the ears) but not typically with hearing loss. C: Allergy to hair coloring and hair spray - Allergy to hair products is not directly related to hearing loss. In summary, the most likely cause of the patient's hearing deficit based on the health history provided is the previous perforation of the eardrum, as it directly affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
Question 4 of 5
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of retinal inflammation in patients with AIDS. What drug, surgically implanted, is used for the acute stage of CMV retinitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Ganciclovir is the correct answer for the acute stage of CMV retinitis in AIDS patients. It is an antiviral drug that specifically targets CMV. Ganciclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis, effectively controlling CMV replication in the eye. Pilocarpine (A) is a miotic used for glaucoma, not for CMV retinitis. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV. Gentamicin (D) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV.
Question 5 of 5
An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinsons disease. Which of the wifes descriptions of her husbands health and function is most suggestive of Parkinsons disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one of the hallmark symptoms of Parkinson's disease is bradykinesia, which is characterized by slowness of movement. This symptom commonly presents as a person moving far more slowly than usual. Option B is more indicative of arthritis or another musculoskeletal condition. Option C suggests possible cognitive decline or dementia, not specific to Parkinson's disease. Option D could indicate a different medical condition causing weight loss despite a good appetite. Therefore, A is the most suggestive of Parkinson's disease based on the symptom of bradykinesia.