ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The patient has just started on enteral feedings, and the patient is reporting abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse takenext?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: Abdominal cramping in a patient on enteral feedings could indicate feeding intolerance. The nurse's initial action should be to slow down the rate of the tube feeding to allow the patient's gastrointestinal tract to adjust gradually. This helps reduce the risk of further complications and allows for better tolerance. Slowing the rate is a safe and effective intervention that can help alleviate the abdominal cramping without causing additional stress on the patient's digestive system. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Instilling cold formula is not a recommended practice and can potentially cause harm or discomfort to the patient. C: Changing to a high-fat formula may exacerbate the abdominal cramping as it can be harder to digest for some patients. D: Consulting with the healthcare provider about prokinetic medication should come after trying less invasive interventions such as slowing the rate of tube feeding.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has just returned to the unit from the PACU after surgery for a tumor within the spine. The patient complains of pain. When positioning the patient for comfort and to reduce injury to the surgical site, the nurse will position to patient in what position?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In a flat side-lying position. Rationale: 1. A flat side-lying position helps reduce pressure on the surgical site, promoting comfort and preventing injury. 2. This position minimizes strain on the spine and supports proper alignment. 3. High Fowlers position may increase pressure on the surgical area due to increased intra-abdominal pressure. 4. Trendelenberg position and reverse Trendelenberg position are not appropriate for spine surgery patients as they can cause increased blood flow to the surgical site, leading to potential complications.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has sought care, stating that she developed hives overnight. The nurses inspection confirms the presence of urticaria. What type of allergic hypersensitivity reaction has the patient developed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction involves the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, leading to symptoms like hives. It is characterized by the involvement of IgE antibodies. In this case, the patient developed hives quickly after exposure to the allergen, indicating an immediate hypersensitivity reaction typical of Type I. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are associated with different mechanisms and timeframes of hypersensitivity reactions. Type II involves antibody-mediated cell destruction, Type III involves immune complex deposition, and Type IV is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells, none of which are consistent with the rapid onset of hives seen in this patient.
Question 4 of 9
As a staff member in a local hospice, a nurse deals with death and dying on a frequent basis. Where would be the safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: At a memorial service. This is a safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died because a memorial service is specifically designed to honor and remember the deceased. It provides a supportive and understanding environment where emotions can be shared openly without judgment. The nurse can find comfort in sharing her feelings with others who have also been impacted by the patient's passing. Incorrect choices: A: In the cafeteria - Not an appropriate setting for expressing personal emotions related to death and dying. B: At a staff meeting - Might not be the most suitable place as the focus is on work-related matters. C: At a social gathering - Not specifically designed for processing grief and may not provide the necessary support and understanding.
Question 5 of 9
A public health nurse is participating in a campaign aimed at preventing cervical cancer. What strategies should the nurse include is this campaign? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Promotion of HPV immunization. This strategy is effective in preventing cervical cancer by targeting the main cause, which is Human Papillomavirus (HPV). The HPV vaccine can protect against the most common types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse (B) does not directly prevent HPV transmission, as the virus can be transmitted through other means. Smoking cessation (C) is important for overall health but does not specifically prevent cervical cancer. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation (D) may have general health benefits but do not directly prevent cervical cancer. Using safer sex practices (E) can reduce the risk of HPV transmission but does not provide the same level of protection as HPV immunization.
Question 6 of 9
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teaching patients to wear sunscreen, which is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it occurs by addressing risk factors. In this case, teaching patients to wear sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer by reducing exposure to harmful UV rays. Yearly Pap tests (A) are a secondary prevention measure for cervical cancer, detecting precancerous changes. Testicular self-examination (B) is a form of secondary prevention for testicular cancer, aiming to detect any abnormalities early. Screening mammograms (D) are also a secondary prevention measure for breast cancer, detecting tumors at an early stage.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient for nutritional status. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, combining multiple objective measures with subjective measures. This approach provides a comprehensive assessment of the patient's nutritional status by incorporating both quantitative data (objective measures) such as weight, BMI, and laboratory values, as well as qualitative information (subjective measures) like dietary history and appetite changes. By combining these measures, the nurse can obtain a more holistic view of the patient's nutritional status, allowing for better identification of nutritional deficiencies or excesses. This method enhances the accuracy and reliability of the assessment compared to relying solely on one type of measure. Choice A is incorrect because nutritional assessment is crucial even in the presence of chronic disease to address potential malnutrition risks. Choice B is incorrect as the Mini Nutritional Assessment is not intended for pediatric patients but for adults. Choice C is incorrect as using a single tool may not capture the full complexity of the patient's nutritional status.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is performing an assessment on a patientwho has not had a bowel movement in 3 days. The nurse will expect which other assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoactive bowel sounds. When a patient has not had a bowel movement in 3 days, it indicates constipation. Constipation can lead to decreased peristalsis, resulting in hypoactive bowel sounds. Increased fluid intake (B) would be a potential intervention, not an expected assessment finding. A soft tender abdomen (C) may indicate other issues like inflammation or infection, not directly related to constipation. Jaundice in the sclera (D) is indicative of liver dysfunction, not a typical finding associated with constipation.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. This is because hospice care focuses on providing compassionate care and support in the comfort of the patient's own home, which can enhance quality of life and dignity. Being in a familiar and comfortable environment allows the patient to receive personalized care and emotional support from family members. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because hospice care emphasizes comfort and quality of life over technologic interventions, designated facilities, and prolonging physiologic dying. Ultimately, the goal of hospice care is to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical well-being during the end stages of life.