ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive rheumatoid factor. A positive rheumatoid factor is a common laboratory finding in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, indicating an autoimmune response. Option A, increased WBC count, is not typically associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B, decreased hemoglobin, and option C, decreased platelet count, are not specific laboratory findings for rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a client reports nausea in the PACU is to turn the client on their side. This action helps prevent aspiration in a client with nausea, reducing the risk of choking or inhaling vomitus. Administering an analgesic (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation unless pain is the primary cause of nausea. While administering an antiemetic (Choice C) can help relieve nausea, it is not the initial action to prevent aspiration. Monitoring the client's vital signs (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by turning them on their side.
Question 5 of 9
A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infections. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. It is important to educate the participant that antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote good hygiene practices and infection prevention during pregnancy.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because taking metformin with food helps reduce gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals to minimize side effects. Choice B is incorrect because metformin does not typically cause urine discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality rather than weight gain.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL is higher than expected and should be reported to prevent hyperglycemia complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hyperglycemia, causing various issues such as increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings and do not require immediate reporting.