A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are valuable resources for individuals with diabetes as they provide specific guidance on meal planning and portion control, which are crucial for managing blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because personal blogs may not always provide accurate or evidence-based information. Choice B is incorrect as food label recommendations, while important, may not offer the structured guidance needed for meal planning in diabetes. Choice C is also incorrect as medication information is different from dietary guidance needed for diabetes management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care when caring for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of bleeding or complications at the access site. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specified for certain medications. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for hypotension (Choice C) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension related to hemodialysis. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not typically indicated unless there is a specific medical indication for prophylactic antibiotic use.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.' When taking prednisone, clients should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choice B is incorrect because prednisone is usually taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect because clients should not stop taking prednisone abruptly, even if they experience nausea. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be tapered off gradually under healthcare provider guidance instead of being stopped abruptly after 2 weeks.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a sign of fluid volume deficit as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume. Jugular vein distention, bradycardia, and bounding pulses are not typical findings of fluid volume deficit. Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload, bradycardia can be a sign of fluid volume excess or other issues, and bounding pulses are not typically seen in fluid volume deficit.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.